- #1
Kara386
- 208
- 2
We've just been introduced to Langrangians, and my lecturer has told us that the Lagrangian density ##\mathcal{L} = \frac{1}{2} (\partial ^{\mu}) (\partial_{\mu}) -\frac{1}{2} m^2\phi^2## is obviously Lorentz invariant. Why? Yes it's a scalar, but I can't see why it obviously has to be a Lorentz invariant one. Thanks for any help!