- #1
GR191511
- 76
- 6
I'm studying Noether theorem.In the derivation process,I saw a equation:J=1+∂σ(δxσ),where J is the Jacobian,the second σ is superscript...Since δ has the property to commute with differentiation,why is ∂σ(δxσ) not equal to δ(∂σ(xσ))=δ (1+1+1+1) =δ (4) =0?