- #1
ndung200790
- 519
- 0
Please teach me this:
In QTF theory book of Peskin&Schroder they say:Call 1PI the one particle irreducible diagram,so Fourier two-point correlation function can write:
i/(gamma(vector).p-m0) +i/(gamma.p-m0)(1PI/(gamma.p-m0) +i/(gamma.p-m0)square(1PI/(gamma.p-m0))...=i/(gamma.p-m0-1PI).
They say that we can sum the left hand side to have the right hand side because the left is a geometric serie.But I don't understand why we can sum while we don't know 1PI/(gamma.p-m0) being smaller than 1 or not.Another worrying is that the calculation is done before the making renormalization and QED being asymtotic theory.
Thank you very much in advanced.
In QTF theory book of Peskin&Schroder they say:Call 1PI the one particle irreducible diagram,so Fourier two-point correlation function can write:
i/(gamma(vector).p-m0) +i/(gamma.p-m0)(1PI/(gamma.p-m0) +i/(gamma.p-m0)square(1PI/(gamma.p-m0))...=i/(gamma.p-m0-1PI).
They say that we can sum the left hand side to have the right hand side because the left is a geometric serie.But I don't understand why we can sum while we don't know 1PI/(gamma.p-m0) being smaller than 1 or not.Another worrying is that the calculation is done before the making renormalization and QED being asymtotic theory.
Thank you very much in advanced.