- #1
DeepSeeded
- 113
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I was under the impression that the derivative of e raised to any power with a variable in it is just the same result. So why isn't it the same for all indefinate integrals of e to any power with a variable in it? Specificaly why is it that:
\int e^6x = \frac{1}{6} e^6x
\int e^6x = \frac{1}{6} e^6x
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