- #1
Bashyboy
- 1,421
- 5
Hello,
I am curious as to why the integral of the Delta-Dirac function is one? It would seem to follow from the way in which you define the function, but any source I have read seems build this fact into the definition of the function.
I am curious as to why the integral of the Delta-Dirac function is one? It would seem to follow from the way in which you define the function, but any source I have read seems build this fact into the definition of the function.