- #36
Mentz114
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arindamsinha said:mentz114 said:If there is no face-to-face ( ie co-located) comparison, you are talking about something which cannot be observed which is a waste of time. If the worldlines of the clocks involved are known, then the elapsed time on the clocks are invariants whose values are easily calculated.
I explained this with the thought experiment in post #15. Co-location is not necessary for establishing differential aging. Signals exchanged at the speed of light between distant locations can establish the same.
What exactly is 'co-location' anyway? Can you define it in terms of 'observations' not using signals at the speed of light?
You're ignoring what I said. There is no need to 'establish' differential aging. It follows from the fact that every worldline has its own invariant proper time.
Now you're agreeing with me and contradicting yourself.If time dilation is just the 'apparent, or coordinate-dependent' effect, what use is it anyway, since it must be symmetrical between two bodies? As you mention, it is not 'physical', meaning it is an 'apparent' effect depending on 'where you observe it from' - analogous to 'parallax error'. Both are very readily understandable and correctable using Newtonian mechanics and common sense. It would appear using Doppler effect even in Newtonian mechanics.
Wrong. Einstein called differential aging 'the clock paradox'."Differential aging" or "relative time dilation" is the real essense of relativity theory, in my opinion. I don't understand why people make such a big fuss about separating "time dilation" and "differential aging". When Einstein talked about "time dilation" he was clearly talking about "differential aging".
Your thinking is very woolly. Stick to invariants. Time dilation is not an invariant.