- #1
toqp
- 10
- 0
This is not any homework problem but just something I don't understand. The Bloch theorem states that
[tex]\psi(\textbf{r}+\textbf{R})=e^{i\textbf{k}\cdot \textbf{R}}\psi(\textbf{r})[/tex]
Now the k is a vector in the reciprocal lattice (usually in the first Brillouin zone), which is defined as the set of vectors K that satisfy
[tex]e^{i\textbf{K}\cdot\textbf{R}}=1[/tex]
Now, if k points to a point in the reciprocal lattice, then why isn't the Bloch theorem
[tex]\psi(\textbf{r}+\textbf{R})=e^{i\textbf{k}\cdot \textbf{R}}\psi(\textbf{r})[/tex]
just
[tex]\psi(\textbf{r}+\textbf{R})=1\psi(\textbf{r})[/tex]?
[tex]\psi(\textbf{r}+\textbf{R})=e^{i\textbf{k}\cdot \textbf{R}}\psi(\textbf{r})[/tex]
Now the k is a vector in the reciprocal lattice (usually in the first Brillouin zone), which is defined as the set of vectors K that satisfy
[tex]e^{i\textbf{K}\cdot\textbf{R}}=1[/tex]
Now, if k points to a point in the reciprocal lattice, then why isn't the Bloch theorem
[tex]\psi(\textbf{r}+\textbf{R})=e^{i\textbf{k}\cdot \textbf{R}}\psi(\textbf{r})[/tex]
just
[tex]\psi(\textbf{r}+\textbf{R})=1\psi(\textbf{r})[/tex]?