Why Isn't {(x,y)|x in Q, y in R} Closed?

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In summary, the conversation discusses the set {(x,y)|x in Q, y in R}, which is a dense set in R^2. This set contains all its adherent points, but is not closed because it fails to contain all points in R^2. The definition of a closed set is clarified, and it is pointed out that the closure of Q in R is not empty. The conversation also discusses the density of the rationals in the reals and the concept of adherent points in a set. Overall, it is concluded that {(x,y)|x in Q, y in R} is neither open nor closed.
  • #1
pivoxa15
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Consider the set {(x,y)|x in Q, y in R}

This is just a bunch of vertical lines in the R^2 plane. For every point there exists a ball no matter what size which contains another point in this set, namely another point on the same line, dictated by the x value.

So this set contains all its adherent points. However the answers suggested it is not closed (nor open for that matter which is obvious).

Why isn't it closed? Haven't I just shown it is closed?
 
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  • #2
Uhh... what's the definition of closed? I don't think you have the right one (actually,you've got it backwards... a closed set contains all its adherent points, it isn't a set where all its points are adherent points. Look at an (x,y) where x is irrational and see what you can do)
 
  • #3
pivoxa15 said:
Consider the set {(x,y)|x in Q, y in R}
...
So this set contains all its adherent points.
No it doesn't; it fails for the same reason that the subset Q of R does.
 
  • #4
Office_Shredder said:
Uhh... what's the definition of closed? I don't think you have the right one (actually,you've got it backwards... a closed set contains all its adherent points, it isn't a set where all its points are adherent points. Look at an (x,y) where x is irrational and see what you can do)

Closed set is where all its adherent points are in the set. Or A=A closure. Or a set that contains all its adherent points as I said in the OP.

I never specified 'a set where all its points are adherent points' is a closed set. In fact this statement is true for open sets as well.

In {(x,y)|x in Q, y in R}, x can't be irrational.


Hurkyl said:
No it doesn't; it fails for the same reason that the subset Q of R does.

The set A={Q in R} is not closed because (A closure) is the empty set. But A is not empty. Not open because the interior of A is empty whereas A isn't.

But with B={(x,y)|x in Q, y in R}, its different because every adherent point of B is in B.
 
  • #5
Pixova, you just verified that if you take a point in the set, it's an adherent point. I asked, what if you take a point not in the set? For example, (x,y) such that x is irrational. Is that an adherent point?

And A closure of Q in R isn't empty, it's just R (as for any point in R, you can find a point in Q infinitely close). That may be the problem you're having
 
  • #6
Office_Shredder said:
Pixova, you just verified that if you take a point in the set, it's an adherent point. I asked, what if you take a point not in the set? For example, (x,y) such that x is irrational. Is that an adherent point?

And A closure of Q in R isn't empty, it's just R (as for any point in R, you can find a point in Q infinitely close). That may be the problem you're having

I was trying to say that if any adherent of a set is in the set than that set is closed.

If for any (x,y) such that x is irrational, I can't see how it is an adherent point of {(x,y)|x in Q, y in R}. If a ball centered around x were to contain an x point that is in Q then I can always shrink that radius of the ball so that it contains no points in Q.
 
  • #7
pivoxa15 said:
If for any (x,y) such that x is irrational, I can't see how it is an adherent point of {(x,y)|x in Q, y in R}. If a ball centered around x were to contain an x point that is in Q then I can always shrink that radius of the ball so that it contains no points in Q.
No you cannot! Between any two reals you can always find a rational.

So suppose you start with (x,y) and take the ball centered at that point of radius e. Then the horizontal line through (x,y) will contain a copy of the interval (x-e,x+e). This interval contains infinitely many rationals. If you let the radius be e' < e, then the same can be said about (x-e', x+e'), because there is always a rational q such that x-e' < q < x+e'.

The rationals are dense in the reals, after all, i.e. [itex]\bar{\mathbb{Q}} = \mathbb{R}[/itex].

By the way, you previously said that the closure of Q was empty. That should have immediately struck you as absurd, because Q is a subset of its closure. So Q's closure at least contains Q.
 
  • #8
Or is the point that between any two irrational points there exist rational pints (in fact infinitely many rational ones). Between two rational points there are infinitely many irrational ones. So the adherent points of the set is R^2.

So {(x,y)|x in Q, y in R} is actually a dense set. So is Q in R.

It is neither open nor closed. Not closed because {(x,y)|x in Q, y in R} is not R^2.
 
  • #9
I made my above post before I read Morphisms which pretty much summed up what I had to say. My mistake was in thinking about the natural numbers when I really should have been thinking about the rationals.
 

FAQ: Why Isn't {(x,y)|x in Q, y in R} Closed?

Why is {(x,y)|x in Q, y in R} not a closed set?

The set {(x,y)|x in Q, y in R} is not a closed set because it does not contain all of its limit points. In other words, there are points on the boundary of the set that are not included in the set itself.

How can we prove that {(x,y)|x in Q, y in R} is not closed?

To prove that {(x,y)|x in Q, y in R} is not closed, we can show that there exists a limit point of the set that is not included in the set. This can be done by finding a sequence of points in the set that converges to a point outside of the set.

Can {(x,y)|x in Q, y in R} be open and closed at the same time?

No, {(x,y)|x in Q, y in R} cannot be both open and closed at the same time. A set is considered open if it contains all of its interior points, while a set is considered closed if it contains all of its limit points. Since {(x,y)|x in Q, y in R} does not contain all of its limit points, it cannot be closed. And since it does not contain all of its interior points (as the set has no interior points), it cannot be open either.

Is {(x,y)|x in Q, y in R} a subset of R^2?

Yes, {(x,y)|x in Q, y in R} is a subset of R^2. This is because the set contains all ordered pairs (x,y) where x is a rational number and y is a real number, which is a subset of all possible ordered pairs in R^2.

How does the closure of {(x,y)|x in Q, y in R} differ from the set itself?

The closure of {(x,y)|x in Q, y in R} is the set itself, as the set is already closed. The closure of a set is defined as the set itself along with all of its limit points, and since the set already contains all of its limit points, its closure will not differ from the set itself.

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