Why use 0 degrees for one of two forces acting at an angle?

In summary, when two forces of 80N and 100N, acting at an angle of 60 degrees with each other, pull on an object, the single force that would replace them is 156N at 34 degrees. This can be found using the head-to-tail method of adding vectors and setting up a coordinate system with the x-axis along the 80N force. Alternatively, the resultant force can be calculated using Pythagoras or trigonometry.
  • #1
Moose100
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1. Two forces, 80N and 100N, acting at an angle of 60deg with each other, pull on an object. a) what single force would replace the two forces?

r^2=(x^2 + y^2)^2 , sinΘ, cosΘ

The Attempt at a Solution


I actually got the correct answer by using an angle of 0 degrees for 80N and 60 degrees for 100N finding the x and y sums and using the pythagorean theorem.

156N at 34°

I am the victim of a lucky guess. I have no idea why I was actually to use 0 degrees instead of another value. What is the definitive reason behind why it worked?
 
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  • #2
Because the difference between the values is all that is important. You could have use 20 degrees and 80 degrees instead and got the same answer (of course, the angle for the resultant force would be 34+ 20= 54 degrees). Essentially, what you did is set up a coordinate system where the "x- axis" was alog the 80 N force.
 
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  • #3
So how do you get 34 degrees?
 
  • #4
Are you familiar with the head-to-tail method of adding vectors? Do the drawing and then it's basic trig to get the 34 degree angle.
 
  • #5
PS: 26 degrees is also a valid answer.

You should specify which vector the angle is measured from. Eg The resultant is 34 degrees from the 80N vector or 26 degrees from the 100N vector.
 
  • #6
CWatters said:
PS: 26 degrees is also a valid answer.

You should specify which vector the angle is measured from. Eg The resultant is 34 degrees from the 80N vector or 26 degrees from the 100N vector.
Ahh that's right I was just thinking about that the answer does say 34 from the 80N vector. How do I KNOW that or find that out? Sorry.
 
  • #7
Moose100 said:
Ahh that's right I was just thinking about that the answer does say 34 from the 80N vector. How do I KNOW that or find that out? Sorry.

As Hallsofivy said in post #2...

Essentially, what you did is set up a coordinate system where the "x- axis" was along the 80 N force.

I did that more explicitly when I checked your answer... I made this drawing...

Top to tail.jpg
 
  • #8
Ahhh so basically I didn't use the parallelogram method. Those figures are lifesavers.
Then you draw a new one with the resultant.
 
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  • #9
Then you draw a new one with the resultant.

Actually I used the same drawing. You can calculate R using Pythagoras or trig..

R*Cos(33.7) = 130
R = 130/Cos(33.7) = 156N
 
  • #10
CWatters said:
Actually I used the same drawing. You can calculate R using Pythagoras or trig..

R*Cos(33.7) = 130
R = 130/Cos(33.7) = 156N
Ok. I was referring to those dotted lines. Also the fact that I always trip up when I don't draw the x an y sums. :biggrin::cool::-p
 

Related to Why use 0 degrees for one of two forces acting at an angle?

1. Why is 0 degrees used for one of the two forces acting at an angle?

The use of 0 degrees for one of the two forces is a convention in physics and mathematics. It allows for a simplified calculation of the forces and reduces the complexity of the equations. Additionally, it aligns with the concept of a right angle, which is often used as a reference point in many calculations.

2. What impact does using 0 degrees for one of the forces have on the overall calculation?

Using 0 degrees for one of the forces does not change the overall calculation or the final result. It simply allows for a more straightforward and standardized approach to solving problems involving forces and angles.

3. Can other angles be used for one of the two forces?

Yes, other angles can be used for one of the forces. However, using 0 degrees is the most common and preferred method due to its simplicity and consistency in calculations.

4. Are there any situations where using 0 degrees for one of the forces is not appropriate?

In some cases, using 0 degrees for one of the forces may not be the most practical or accurate approach. For example, if the forces are not acting in a two-dimensional plane, using a different angle may be necessary to accurately represent the forces and their effects.

5. Is there a specific reason why 0 degrees is used instead of another angle?

The use of 0 degrees as a reference angle in calculations involving forces and angles is simply a convention that has been established and widely accepted in the scientific community. It allows for consistency and simplification of calculations, making it the preferred approach in most cases.

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