- #1
corkscrew062
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- 0
Came across this problem while reading and I can't understand what it wants. I've tried solving for units to get zero divisors but that doesn't work. It's not the end of the world if I can't figure it out, it's just bothering me because I'm confused. Here's the problem: Let $R$ and $S$ be commutative rings, and let $f:R\longrightarrow S$ be a ring isomorphism. Prove if $x$ is a zero divisor in $R$, then $f(x)$ is a zero divisor in $S$. Give an example to show that it is not necessarily true if $R\not \simeq S$.
Thanks in advance!
Thanks in advance!