Zero Integral Implies Zero Function

In summary, if $h: \Omega\to \mathbb{R}$ is continuous and $\displaystyle \int\limits_{B(x_0,r)}h(x)\, dx=0$ for all $B(x_0,r)\subseteq \Omega$, then $h(x)=0, \, \forall x\in \Omega.$
  • #1
Julio1
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If $h: \Omega\to \mathbb{R}$ is continuous and $\displaystyle \int\limits_{B(x_0,r)}h(x)\, dx=0$, for all $B(x_0,r)\subseteq \Omega$, then $h(x)=0, \, \forall x\in \Omega.$Hello MHB, is an problem that I don't solve :(. Help me please or any hints :). Thanks.
 
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  • #2
This looks to me a lot like the Fundamental Theorem of the Calculus (FTC). You're given information about the integral of a continuous function, and asked to prove something about the function. Could you try to get the "if" part of the FTC satisfied, maybe?
 
  • #3
Hi Julio,

Prove the contrapositive, i.e., suppose $h$ is not identically zero, and prove that there is an $x_0\in \Omega$ and $r > 0$ such that $\int_{B(x_0,r)} h(x)\, dx$ is nonzero.

If $h$ is not identically zero, there is an $x_0$ such that $h(x_0) \neq 0$. Thus $|h(x_0)|/2 > 0$; by continuity of $h$ at $x_0$, there exists $r > 0$ such that $|h(x) - h(x_0)| < |h(x_0)|/2$ for all $x \in B(x_0,r)$. Thus

$$h(x_0) - \frac{|h(x_0)|}{2} < h(x) < h(x_0) + \frac{|h(x_0)|}{2}$$

for all $x\in B(x_0,r)$. If $h(x_0) > 0$, then the latter inequalities give $h(x_0)/2 < h(x) < 3h(x_0)/2$ for $x\in B(x_0,r)$. Hence

$$0 < \int_{B(x_0,r)} \frac{h(x_0)}{2}\, dx < \int_{B(x_0,r)} h(x)\, dx.$$

If $h(x_0) < 0$, you can show

$$0 > \int_{B(x_0,r)} \frac{h(x_0)}{2}\, dx > \int_{B(x_0,r)} h(x)\, dx.$$
 

FAQ: Zero Integral Implies Zero Function

What does "zero integral implies zero function" mean?

This statement means that if the integral of a function is equal to zero, then the function itself must also be equal to zero.

How does this concept relate to calculus?

The concept of "zero integral implies zero function" is a fundamental theorem in calculus known as the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus. It helps in finding the value of definite integrals and in evaluating antiderivatives.

Can you provide an example to illustrate this concept?

Sure! An example would be the function f(x) = 0. This function has an indefinite integral of 0, meaning that the area under the curve is 0. Therefore, the function itself is also equal to 0.

Is this concept always true for any type of function?

Yes, this concept is always true for any type of continuous function. It is a direct consequence of the definition of an integral as the area under the curve of a function.

How is this concept useful in real-world applications?

This concept is useful in various real-world applications, such as calculating the work done by a force, finding the net displacement of an object, and determining the average value of a function over a given interval.

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