- #1
Streltsy
- 7
- 0
Given this definition of two homeomorphic spaces,
Definition 1.7.2. Two topological spaces X and Y are said to be homeomorphic if there are
continuous map f : X → Y and g : Y → X such that
f ° g = IY and g ° f = IX.
Suppose I know f and g are both continuous. Would it be safe to assume then, that if
f ° (g ° f) = f, X and Y are homeomorphic?
Here's my reasoning:
f ° (g ° f) = f implies g ° f = IX and due to the associativity of a composition,
f ° (g ° f) = (f ° g) ° f = f or f ° g = IY.
Definition 1.7.2. Two topological spaces X and Y are said to be homeomorphic if there are
continuous map f : X → Y and g : Y → X such that
f ° g = IY and g ° f = IX.
Suppose I know f and g are both continuous. Would it be safe to assume then, that if
f ° (g ° f) = f, X and Y are homeomorphic?
Here's my reasoning:
f ° (g ° f) = f implies g ° f = IX and due to the associativity of a composition,
f ° (g ° f) = (f ° g) ° f = f or f ° g = IY.