- #1
kent davidge
- 933
- 56
I'm aware that there are definitions of how reference frames translates to mathematics. But I've came to the following.
How incomplete would be to say that, mathematically speaking, two Lorentz (or whatever) inertial frames are two subspaces of a given vector space whose span is the same vector space? I mean
Let two "Lorentz frames" be ##A## and ##B##, subsets of a set ##V## which is a vector space.
Then ##\text{span} (A) = \text{span} (B) = V##.
What would be left by this reasoning?
How incomplete would be to say that, mathematically speaking, two Lorentz (or whatever) inertial frames are two subspaces of a given vector space whose span is the same vector space? I mean
Let two "Lorentz frames" be ##A## and ##B##, subsets of a set ##V## which is a vector space.
Then ##\text{span} (A) = \text{span} (B) = V##.
What would be left by this reasoning?