- #316
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Faust said:I can tell you this much: your reasoning above is not valid. David Chalmers has a paper on his website that deals with the fact that zombies also have a "problem of qualia", even though they don't have qualia. You don't need qualia to have the illusion that you do.
Chalmers zombies are used as an illustration of the epistomological problems of consciousness. They don't really exist. But I think we are using different terms of the word illusion. You think it means "a false belief". If I use this meaning then I would agree that zombies have the illusion of qualia and, in theory, this can be explained by neuorology. By using this term in this way and also claiming that you don't believe qualia exists, you are basically saying that we are all nothing but zombies. There is no difference between you and Chalmers zombie. This is a cop-out to me.
The way I use the term illusion, it means
1)a misleading image presented as a visual stimulus or
2 a perception of something objectively existing in such a way as to cause misinterpretation of its actual nature;
Note that this is not simply a false belief. It actually requires a stimulis that is likely misleading in nature. Anyway, I think this is the culprit for why I had trouble understanding you.
Now you may raise the objection that when zombies talk about qualia they don't know what they are talking about, whereas we do. The only answer I have for that objection is that I myself don't know what qualia is (that is, I don't know what the word means), and I'm talking about it here, therefore I must be a zombie.
As I said above... this is a cop out and even just a little investigation will show this is definitely a minority position.
I deny the existence of qualia, and I think the "problem of qualia" is a problem of semantics, nothing more. Seems I'm not alone.
Another cop out. Don't get me wrong. It could be true. The problem is that everyone who ever claims this, always ends their post with this statement. No one ever explains how this is the case. Even though it may allow one to keep their world view intact, claiming it is so doesn't make it so.
Also, how do you know it doesn't exists if you don't know what it is?
That is not my position, and I don't even think it's the position of the functionalists, as the only problem from a functionalist perspective is to find out the neurological mechanisms that cause a person to believe they have qualia. For a functionalist, explaining qualia is as trivial as explaining why people believe in false ideas. But I must point out I'm not a functionalist so I may be misrepresenting their position.
This again is because you define illusion differently. I don't have any sources at the moment but I really don't think what you're saying here is accurate. I've never been under the impression that all functionalists think we are no different from Chalmers zombies.
It seems everyone who fails to understand an antagonic position feels tempted to claim the antagonists are acting out of faith. That is rather ironic, as you can't really know what the antagonist is thinking; it is an appeal to faith to claim that people can only disagree with you by being irrational. So I think anyway.
I'm not trying to read minds here. I'm participating in a discussion in a philosophy forum. I judge the "antagonist" by the arguments laid out here. Am I not justified in concluding that a post written here is not a good argument? Even if the post just makes generally claims without any supporting arguments? I think so.
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