- #1
MarkFL
Gold Member
MHB
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Recently, on another forum, the following problem was posted:
Given three distinct complex numbers:
$\displaystyle z_1,z_2,z_3$
where:
$\displaystyle |z_1|=|z_2|=|z_3|\ne0$
and:
$\displaystyle z_1+z_2z_3,z_2+z_1z_3,z_3+z_1z_2$
are all real, then prove:
$\displaystyle z_1z_2z_3=1$
I began with:
$\displaystyle z_1=re^{\theta_1 i}$
$\displaystyle z_2=re^{\theta_2 i}$
$\displaystyle z_3=re^{\theta_3 i}$
where $\displaystyle 0\le\theta_n<2\pi$
For the 3 expression that are real, I equated the imaginary parts to zero, which gives:
$\displaystyle \sin(\theta_1)+r\sin(\theta_2+\theta_3)=0$
$\displaystyle \sin(\theta_2)+r\sin(\theta_1+\theta_3)=0$
$\displaystyle \sin(\theta_3)+r\sin(\theta_1+\theta_2)=0$
I next solved the first two equations for r, and equated, to find:
$\displaystyle \sin(\theta_1)\sin(\theta_1+\theta_3)=\sin(\theta_2)\sin(\theta_2+\theta_3)$
Using a product-to-sum identity, this implies:
$\displaystyle \cos(2\theta_1+\theta_3)=\cos(2\theta_2+\theta_3)$
Given that the angles $\displaystyle \theta_n$ must be distinct, I used:
$\displaystyle \cos(2\theta_1+\theta_3)=\cos(2\theta_2+\theta_3-4\pi)$
From which I obtained:
$\displaystyle \theta_1+\theta_2+\theta_3=2\pi$
However, I was told by someone whose judgement is extremely sound that I was "fudging" here.
Would it also be "fudging" to redefine the angles with:
$\displaystyle -\pi\le\theta_n<\pi$
and then use:
$\displaystyle \cos(2\theta_1+\theta_3)=\cos(-2\theta_2-\theta_3)$
to obtain:
$\displaystyle \theta_1+\theta_2+\theta_3=0$
I admit, this seems to merely be the same "fudge" I used before.(Rofl)
Can anyone offer a hint or nudge in the right direction?
Given three distinct complex numbers:
$\displaystyle z_1,z_2,z_3$
where:
$\displaystyle |z_1|=|z_2|=|z_3|\ne0$
and:
$\displaystyle z_1+z_2z_3,z_2+z_1z_3,z_3+z_1z_2$
are all real, then prove:
$\displaystyle z_1z_2z_3=1$
I began with:
$\displaystyle z_1=re^{\theta_1 i}$
$\displaystyle z_2=re^{\theta_2 i}$
$\displaystyle z_3=re^{\theta_3 i}$
where $\displaystyle 0\le\theta_n<2\pi$
For the 3 expression that are real, I equated the imaginary parts to zero, which gives:
$\displaystyle \sin(\theta_1)+r\sin(\theta_2+\theta_3)=0$
$\displaystyle \sin(\theta_2)+r\sin(\theta_1+\theta_3)=0$
$\displaystyle \sin(\theta_3)+r\sin(\theta_1+\theta_2)=0$
I next solved the first two equations for r, and equated, to find:
$\displaystyle \sin(\theta_1)\sin(\theta_1+\theta_3)=\sin(\theta_2)\sin(\theta_2+\theta_3)$
Using a product-to-sum identity, this implies:
$\displaystyle \cos(2\theta_1+\theta_3)=\cos(2\theta_2+\theta_3)$
Given that the angles $\displaystyle \theta_n$ must be distinct, I used:
$\displaystyle \cos(2\theta_1+\theta_3)=\cos(2\theta_2+\theta_3-4\pi)$
From which I obtained:
$\displaystyle \theta_1+\theta_2+\theta_3=2\pi$
However, I was told by someone whose judgement is extremely sound that I was "fudging" here.
Would it also be "fudging" to redefine the angles with:
$\displaystyle -\pi\le\theta_n<\pi$
and then use:
$\displaystyle \cos(2\theta_1+\theta_3)=\cos(-2\theta_2-\theta_3)$
to obtain:
$\displaystyle \theta_1+\theta_2+\theta_3=0$
I admit, this seems to merely be the same "fudge" I used before.(Rofl)
Can anyone offer a hint or nudge in the right direction?