An angled photon (special relativity)

Click For Summary
The discussion focuses on calculating the components of a photon's velocity in two reference frames, S and S', with S' moving at speed v along the x' axis. The user attempts to apply the velocity addition formula but struggles with the algebra to show that the squared components of the photon's velocity sum to c². Key points include the acknowledgment that the y-component of the photon's velocity does change during the transformation, and the user receives guidance on the correct application of the Lorentz factor. Ultimately, the user is encouraged to revisit the calculations to resolve the algebraic difficulties encountered. The conversation highlights the complexities of special relativity and the challenges of transforming velocities between frames.
philnow
Messages
83
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



A photon moves at an angle theta with respect to the x' axis in the frame S'. Frame S' moves with speed v with respect to frame S (along the x' axis). Calculate the components of the photon's velocity in S and verify that it's speed is c.

The Attempt at a Solution



I break down the photon speed in S' into Ccos(theta) for X and Csin(theta) for y. There is no change from the transformation of frames with respect to the y-axis, only the x-axis. So the speed of the horizontal component of the photon in S frame is then

(Ccos(theta) + V) / (1 + (Ccos(theta)*V/C^2))

by velocity addition.

I would like to show that this squared, plus Csin(theta) squared should be equal to C^2. The problem is the algebra... whatever I do, I end up with cosines to odd and even powers that just won't simplify, so here I am. Any hints?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
well, this part is right

X' : \ c_x= c\cos\theta
Y' : \ c_y= c\sin\theta

but there is a change in both vector components when you transform from S' to S
(there is no change from the transformation of frames with respect to the y-axis only when \theta=0 \ or \ \pi)

as for what you're trying to do, obviously:

(\frac{c\cos\theta + v}{1+\frac{vc\cos\theta}{c^2}})^2 + (c\sin\theta)^2 \neq c^2 \ (i)

because

(\frac{c\cos\theta + v}{1+\frac{vc\cos\theta}{c^2}})^2 + (c\sin\theta)^2=\frac{c^2\cos^2\theta +v^2+2vc\cos\theta+c^2\sin^2\theta+2vc\cos\theta\sin^2\theta+v^2\cos^2\theta\sin^2\theta}{\frac{c^2+2vc\cos\theta+v^2\cos^2\theta}{c^2}}=

=c^2\frac{c^2+v^2+2vc\cos\theta(1+\sin^2\theta)+v^2\cos^2\theta\sin^2\theta}{c^2+2vc\cos\theta+v^2\cos^2\theta}

{not} (i) \ \Leftrightarrow \ (v=0) \vee (\cos\theta=1\Leftrightarrow \theta\in \{0,\pi \})

which means that either S' is not moving relative to S either the velocity vector of the photon is parallel with the x-axis (and both cases are contradictory with the premises of the exercise).

you must go back to square one. you probably forgot how to calculate the photon's velocity vector components in S. you should have that in your textbook. good luck. :smile:
 
Last edited:
Ok that makes sense. But how does the Y component of the photon's velocity change from S' to S?
 
philnow said:
Ok that makes sense. But how does the Y component of the photon's velocity change from S' to S?

well :smile:, (you should have this in your textbook but...) the Y component from S is:

\displaystyle \frac{c_y}{\lambda (1+\frac{vc_x}{c^2})}, where \lambda is the Lorentz factor...
 
Last edited:
Hi again. I'm assuming you meant without the lorentz factor, I think the that is only for S to S', and not vice versa. So using this, I'm getting

Ux = C*sin / (1 + cv*cos/c^2)

and Uy = C*cos / (1 + cv*cos/c^2)

Once again, my algebra defeats me. This time it simplifies much better, though... I'm getting:

C^2*(c^2 + v^2 + 2vc*cos)/(c^2 + cos^2*v^2 + 2vc*cos)

I can't get rid of that damn cos^2 in front of the v in the denominator. I realize this is trivial algebra, but I can't figure out the problem! I checked with my professor and we have the same Ux and Uy.
 
Last edited:
Ux^2 + Uy^2... should equal C^2

What's the problem folks :(
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

Similar threads

Replies
3
Views
1K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
1K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
1K
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
1K