- #141
physicsworks
Gold Member
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I think I see now what you are asking. First, not to be too pedantic, but just to be super clear, it's not that there aren't any interference effects, it's that they are unobservable on humongous time scales compared to the age of the universe. Second, we don't assume, based on the above, the ignorance interpretation of probabilities. We merely note that (in this particular setting, when we talk about collective coordinates of macroscopic objects used to record our observations of a microscopic system entangled with them) predictions based on two calculations, one done in classical probability theory and the other done in full quantum theory, cannot be distinguished by any experiment, even in principle. In his book (and his papers) Banks uses this to explain an apparent classicality of the macroscopic world.stevendaryl said:The question is what, if anything the lack of macroscopic interference terms tells us. I thought you were suggesting that if there aren’t any interference effects, then we might as well assume the ignorance interpretation of probabilities.