Barriers & Tunneling: Find No Reflection & Max. Reflection Thresholds

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The discussion focuses on determining barrier thickness for electron tunneling with 11.0-eV electrons approaching a 3.8 eV potential barrier. It addresses two key points: finding the thickness for zero reflection and for maximum reflection. The initial approach involved using the equation kL=nπ, but confusion arose regarding the integer n, leading to incorrect calculations. After recalculating and considering the sine function's properties, the correct relationship was established, resulting in the accurate barrier thickness of 0.229 nm or its integer multiples. The importance of unit conversion and algebraic simplification in solving the problem was emphasized.
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1. Let 11.0-eV electrons approach a potential barrier of height 3.8 eV.
2. (a) For what barrier thickness is there no reflection? (b) For what barrier thickness is the reflection a maximum?
3. For part (a) I tried using kL=npi where k=sqrt(2m(E-V))/hbar, because this is where the Probability of transmission T=1.
The equation for probability of transmission is given by T=(1+V^2sin^2(kL)/(4E(E-V)))^-1. V is the potential barrier, 3.8 eV
I solved for L, getting: L=npi*hbar/sqrt(2m(E-V)), but I still don't know n. (n is an integer) And when ignoring n I get the wrong answer.
The answer I get is 7.623e-19.
The answer in the book is L=.229nm or any integer multiple thereof.
I have no idea what to do from here, I also multiplied the top and the bottom by c=3e8 due to electron mass m=.511e6 eV/c^2.
 
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zbhest123 said:
I solved for L, getting: L=npi*hbar/sqrt(2m(E-V)), but I still don't know n. (n is an integer) And when ignoring n I get the wrong answer.

n is just any integer, because if pi*hbar/sqrt(2m(E-V)) satisfies the equation sin(k1*L)=0, so do all of its integer multiples.

The answer I get is 7.623e-19.
The answer in the book is L=.229nm or any integer multiple thereof.
[/b]

Check over your algebra. Did you remember to convert E and V to joules?
 
Nevermind! I got it using the equation: T=(1+V^2sin^2(kL)/(4E(E-V)))^-1

Simplifying to sin^2(kL)=0

Originally I put it in my calculator to find arcsin(0) equal to 0. It was then pointed out to me that it can also equal pi. So I used Lk=pi, simplified to L=pi/k, which gave me a correct answer.

Thanks!
 
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