- #1
lukephysics
- 60
- 15
- TL;DR Summary
- can you do the inequality test without polarisation? Polarisation is complex and weird.
Was trying to understand the inequality test. The only article ever that I've found that explains it simply is the 1981 article, Bringing home the atomic world: Quantum Mysteries For Anybody. All other explanations require trust and understanding of polarisation, which is a huge deal.
So i now fully understand why it eliminates local realism. Now I want to know if the presumtions of the 3 measurement angles are correct. I have no knowledge of how polarisation 'really' works. So in my mind maybe the experimenters don't understand polarisation because 'quantum' or some conservation of momentum stuff. who knows?
So I was wondering if there are other experiments that have been done that don't use polarisation. After all, photons are just one type of particle and one of the many properties available to measure. So has this been done in other ways that can be explained by first principles, - without complexities and complications of polarisation, to verify this result? And if not, why not?
So i now fully understand why it eliminates local realism. Now I want to know if the presumtions of the 3 measurement angles are correct. I have no knowledge of how polarisation 'really' works. So in my mind maybe the experimenters don't understand polarisation because 'quantum' or some conservation of momentum stuff. who knows?
So I was wondering if there are other experiments that have been done that don't use polarisation. After all, photons are just one type of particle and one of the many properties available to measure. So has this been done in other ways that can be explained by first principles, - without complexities and complications of polarisation, to verify this result? And if not, why not?