Bessel's Inequality: Proving \|v\|^2 \ge c_1^2 + \cdots + c_k^2

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The discussion revolves around proving Bessel's Inequality, which states that for a vector v in R^n and an orthonormal set {u_1, ..., u_k}, the inequality ||v||^2 ≥ c_1^2 + ... + c_k^2 holds, where c_i represents the coefficients of the projection of v onto u_i. Participants explore the relationship between the vector v and its projections, noting that if the orthonormal set can be completed to a basis, the inequality can be derived. The importance of orthonormality is emphasized, as it allows v to be expressed as a linear combination of the basis vectors. Additionally, the discussion touches on the necessity of proving related concepts like Parseval's Identity and the conditions under which Bessel's Inequality holds as equality. Overall, the conversation highlights the mathematical foundations and implications of Bessel's Inequality in linear algebra.
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Homework Statement
Let v \in \mathbb{R}^n, let \{u_1, \ldots, u_k\} be an orthonormal subset of \mathbb{R}^n and let c_i be the coefficient of the projection of v to the span of u_i. Show that \|v\|^2 \ge c_1^2 + \cdots + c_k^2.

The attempt at a solution
c_i = v \cdot u_i and \| v \|^2 = v \cdot v so I can write the inequality as

v \cdot (v - (u_1 + \cdots + u_k)) \ge 0

This means the angle between v and v - (u_1 + \cdots + u_k) is less than 90 degrees. This is all I've been able to conjure. I'm trying to reverse-engineer the inequality back to something I know is true. Is this a good approach? Is there a better approach?
 
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Couldn't you just complete {u1,...,uk} to an orthonormal basis {u1,...,uk,uk+1,...,un}? So ||v||^2=c1^2+...cn^2.
 
Ah! Good point. I think that'll work. All that remains to be proved is that v = c_1u_1 + \cdots c_nu_n.
 
Quick question: the basis doesn't have to be orthonormal does it?
 
e(ho0n3 said:
Ah! Good point. I think that'll work. All that remains to be proved is that v = c_1u_1 + \cdots c_nu_n.

Do you really have to prove that? v is some linear combination of the basis vectors u_i. So c_i must be v.u_i since they are orthonormal. Isn't that what an orthonormal basis is all about?
 
Never mind. I understand why it has to be orthonormal: If it isn't, I couldn't write v as a linear combination of the u's using the c's as the coefficients.
 
The only thing that might have to be proved is that you can complete an orthonormal subset to an orthonormal basis. But that's Gram-Schmidt.
 
I know I can expand the set of u's to a basis, then orthogonalize it using Gram-Schmidt, and then normalize the result. This will yield an orthonormal basis with the original u's.
 
Right. So not much to prove really. That one was easy.
 
  • #10
Thank you for your help.
 
  • #11
Hi
Can you do it these two proof?
I tried but i don't know these proofs...

(b) Prove Parseval’s Indentity: For any w ∈ span(S), we have

||w||^2 = |w · u1 |^2 + |w · u2 |^2+ · · · + |w · uk |^2 .

(c) Prove Bessel’s Inequality: For any x ∈ R^n we have

||x||^2 ≥ |x · u1 |^2 + |x · u2 |^2 + · · · + |x · uk |^2 ,

and this is an equality if and only if x ∈ span(S).
 

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