Black Holes - the two points of view.

In summary, the conversation between Elroch and DrStupid in RossiUK's topic "First Post - a question about Black Holes and Gravity" discussed the concept of whether or not Black Holes exist in the universe. Elroch's view, which has been shared for many years, states that there are no Black Holes in the universe. This is because, according to calculations and observations by prominent astrophysicists, as seen from the perspective of an outside observer, it would take an infinite amount of time for an object to reach the Schwarzschild radius, which is when it is considered a Black Hole. This means that there are no Black Holes in the universe until the age of the universe becomes infinity.
  • #71
Austin0 said:
Forgive me if I am a little slow tonight. But let me see if I've got it right:
Given static observers S1, S2 with S2at infinity and free falling observer FF with rel velocity v wrt S2
S1 and FF emit identical signals at the moment of co-location.
As received at S2 the signal from FF will be equivalent to the signal from S1 with the addition of a purely classical Doppler shift for relative velocity v.
Is this right?

Imagine that S1 rebroadcasts the signal received from FF. The signal as received by S1 will be redshifted by the relative velocity between FF and S1. What will be received by S2 will be the rebroadcasted signal redshifted by an additional gravitational redshift factor, the one between S1 and S2.

So the answer is yes, though I'd reverse the order from your original phrasing, because the velocity between FF and S1 is well defined as they are at the same spot, and that way you don't have to worry about multiplication being commutative (though it is).
 
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  • #72
pervect said:
Imagine that S1 rebroadcasts the signal received from FF. The signal as received by S1 will be redshifted by the relative velocity between FF and S1. What will be received by S2 will be the rebroadcasted signal redshifted by an additional gravitational redshift factor, the one between S1 and S2.

So the answer is yes, though I'd reverse the order from your original phrasing, because the velocity between FF and S1 is well defined as they are at the same spot, and that way you don't have to worry about multiplication being commutative (though it is).

It appears to me that the signal received at S2 in your relayed adaptation would not be equivalent to a signal sent directly from FF to S2 as I outlined.
In your case there would only be transverse Doppler between FF and S 1
so there would not be any classical kinematic component ,only a simple gamma dilation factor.
But from your input it appears I was wrong in my first conclusion. It seems you are saying there are two effects in operation. So a direct signal from FF to S2 would be red shifted by the full relativistic Doppler factor (which includes a gamma dilation component) and the additional gravitational dilation factor due to potential location. Do I have it yet??
Thanks
 
  • #73
Austin0 said:
It appears to me that the signal received at S2 in your relayed adaptation would not be equivalent to a signal sent directly from FF to S2 as I outlined.

Why not? FF and S1 are at the point in space-time, and the light cones for signals emitted by FF and S1 will be identical.

I am imagining that FF is falling into the black hole, so that FF, S1, and S2 will always be in a straight line. I don't think it necessarily matters if they aren't, but I'll agree it's not as obvious if S1 doesn't automatically "intercept" the signal from FF "en-route" to S2.

In your case there would only be transverse Doppler between FF and S 1
so there would not be any classical kinematic component ,only a simple gamma dilation factor.

No, you want to use the relativistic doppler shift formula, See http://en.wikipedia.org/w/index.php?title=Relativistic_Doppler_effect&oldid=509495441. FF can't help but move away from S1, so there would be a doppler shift factor of sqrt[ (1 - beta) / (1 +beta) ], as per the wiki article. This doppler shift factor incorporates relatiavistic "time dilation" into the formula.

Do I have it yet??
Thanks

I'm not following you 100%, so there's probably still some confusion somewhere.
 
  • #74
pervect said:
[..]
I'm not following you 100%, so there's probably still some confusion somewhere.
And I'm not following either of you for 100%. Austin, a little clarification of S1, S2 and FF together with a sketch (even in ASCII) would be helpful to clear up what you are talking about. :wink:
 
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  • #75
PAllen said:
There is a less intuitive version of the same concept, due to J.L. Synge (1960) [in the cosmological framework, this approach was pushed in a well known paper by Bunn and Hogg (2008), but it was demonstrated in greater generality by Synge in 1960]. This approach also is true for every SR and GR case , one operation: parallel transport the 4 velocity of the emitter at moment of emission, along the null path the light follows to the receiver, then apply SR doppler formula using the transported emitter 4-velocity expressed in the local frame of the receiver, and the null path tangent also expressed in this local receiver frame. This will give the correct shift for every case.
Thanks PAllen, that is great to know. That is a much simpler calculation than the one that I was proposing. It is easy to see that this is a completely equivalent way of doing it. As you take two events which are separated by an infinitesimal amount of proper time you get the tangent vector.
 
  • #76
Austin0 said:
It appears to me that the signal received at S2 in your relayed adaptation would not be equivalent to a signal sent directly from FF to S2 as I outlined.

pervect said:
Why not? FF and S1 are at the point in space-time, and the light cones for signals emitted by FF and S1 will be identical.

See below

pervect said:
I am imagining that FF is falling into the black hole, so that FF, S1, and S2 will always be in a straight line. I don't think it necessarily matters if they aren't, but I'll agree it's not as obvious if S1 doesn't automatically "intercept" the signal from FF "en-route" to S2.
Yes I was assuming a proximate parallel path with a single short transmission , even a single photon in principle.(assuming ideal detection)
So FF is falling by S1 and emits the photon in passing.

Austin0 said:
Austin0 said:
In your case there would only be transverse Doppler between FF and S 1
so there would not be any classical kinematic component ,only a simple gamma dilation factor.

pervect said:
No, you want to use the relativistic doppler shift formula, See http://en.wikipedia.org/w/index.php?...ldid=509495441. FF can't help but move away from S1, so there would be a doppler shift factor of sqrt[ (1 - beta) / (1 +beta) ], as per the wiki article. This doppler shift factor incorporates relatiavistic "time dilation" into the formula.

I was using the relativistic Doppler. which as far as I know simply reduces to the gamma factor for transverse reception just as I stated.
And no moving away from S1,,, a single transmission,

Austin0 said:
So a direct signal from FF to S2 would be red shifted by the full relativistic Doppler factor (which includes a gamma dilation component)

Austin0 said:
Do I have it yet??


pervect said:
I'm not following you 100%, so there's probably still some confusion somewhere.
Yep still some confusion but hopefully this might clear up some of it.
___SO if you might reread my previous post and see if it now tracks. Thanks_______________
 
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  • #77
Austin0 said:
If we are considering an EM emission from a free falling frame at a particular potential altitude to a receiver at infinity does it still hold? Or does it require calculation of the g dilation and the relativistic Doppler due to velocity?
I guess in a way I am just asking if there are two separate effects or only one, and if not two ; why not?
As mentioned earlier, the process I was describing includes both effects automatically. When you calculate the null geodesics you intrinsically include the effect of the curvature of spacetime between the emitter and the receiver, and the remaining description is simply how you calculate the Doppler effect in flat spacetime.
 
  • #78
PAllen said:
one operation: parallel transport the 4 velocity of the emitter at moment of emission, along the null path the light follows to the receiver, then apply SR doppler formula using the transported emitter 4-velocity expressed in the local frame of the receiver, and the null path tangent also expressed in this local receiver frame. This will give the correct shift for every case.

How do you ascertain the 4-velocity of the emitter in the GR case and compare it to the vector in the local frame of the receiver?, for a emitter sufficiently distant, isn't comparing vectors not well defined due to path-dependence of parallel transport on a curved manifold?

Basically in practice you have to assume validity of the Hubble parameter to calculate a coordinate velocity of the emitter and obtain the redshift.
 
  • #79
TrickyDicky said:
How do you ascertain the 4-velocity of the emitter in the GR case and compare it to the vector in the local frame of the receiver?, for a emitter sufficiently distant, isn't comparing vectors not well defined due to path-dependence of parallel transport on a curved manifold?

Basically in practice you have to assume validity of the Hubble parameter to calculate a coordinate velocity of the emitter and obtain the redshift.

Just read what I wrote, all your points are answered. Path dependence is removed by specifying parallel transport along the null path followed by light from emitter to receiver. This does not remove the general ambiguity of distant comparison of 4-velocities; however, for this purpose, a unique transport path is specified, with a unique result. Nothing assumed about Hubble or any cosmology feature, nor any feature of specific geometry. Reread what you quoted, it already answered all of your questions:

"parallel transport the 4 velocity of the emitter at moment of emission, along the null path the light follows to the receiver, then apply SR doppler formula using the transported emitter 4-velocity expressed in the local frame of the receiver, and the null path tangent also expressed in this local receiver frame"

It is a complete, unambiguous prescription, which Synge showed to always yield the correct result.
 
  • #80
The null geodesic approach is a good one, I don't mean to imply by discussing other approaches that its not.

Do note that if you have multiple images, you can in general have a different doppler shift for each image - so it doesn't necessarily solve the path dependence problems.
 
  • #81
pervect said:
The null geodesic approach is a good one, I don't mean to imply by discussing other approaches that its not.

Do note that if you have multiple images, you can in general have a different doppler shift for each image - so it doesn't necessarily solve the path dependence problems.

Good point, but this is certainly true of any approach to red/blue shift. For each image, you must analyze null path corresponding to that image. Clearly, no model based on gravitational potential will work - source and target are unique, only thing that differs are null paths.

Thus, Synge's (and Dalespam's equivalent) approach handle this case naturally: For each image, you use the the corresponding null path. I don't know what other approach you can use for this case.

In any case, the following wording was misleading:

"a unique transport path is specified, with a unique result"

You don't have to worry about all paths, but you do have to worry about all null paths light actually follows, and compute a separate redshift for each.
 
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  • #82
I haven't posted here for a few days, as I have had a lot to think about, but I have found your conversatiion interesting, and I am learning all the time.

I realize now that I was wrong about redshifts. There are what I think of as two processes, gravitational redshift and Doppler redshift, though some of you say it is all the same process. But I had thought there was an additionaln redshift because successive light signals from the falling body take longer and longer to escape the gravitation well. I see now that as I am thinking about separate signals at fixed intervals, this does not appear as a redshift, although it will add an added apparent time dilation as seen by a stationary distant observer.

Have been reading up on naked singularities, and am about to email Saul Teukolsky to get more info from the horse's mouth. We got our B.Sc.s at the University of the Witwatersrand, but different generations.

Mike
 
  • #83
PAllen said:
Just read what I wrote, all your points are answered. Path dependence is removed by specifying parallel transport along the null path followed by light from emitter to receiver. This does not remove the general ambiguity of distant comparison of 4-velocities; however, for this purpose, a unique transport path is specified, with a unique result. Nothing assumed about Hubble or any cosmology feature, nor any feature of specific geometry. Reread what you quoted, it already answered all of your questions
No, my specific question is not answered, I asked how you exactly calculate the relative velocity of the distant emitter.
As you admit below path dependence is not removed, so I won't enter into that issue.

PAllen said:
It is a complete, unambiguous prescription, which Synge showed to always yield the correct result.
I don't think is complete, you still need to calculate the distant relative velocity. And to do it you must use some additional information like the observed Hubble parameter that not only uses observed redshifts but luminosities, to pick the unique null path that leads to a unique relative velocity for the distant emitter, in the end the formula must equal the scale factors ratio of the cosmological redshift, Synge's is basically an algebraic reordering of this.

I'm not saying Synge (and Hogg and Bunn) "prescription" is wrong, I think it is purely an interpretational(almost just about terminology) issue, no matter how you call it (Doppler or cosmological redshift) the result must be the same, and yes, it can be computed in one step.
pervect said:
Do note that if you have multiple images, you can in general have a different doppler shift for each image - so it doesn't necessarily solve the path dependence problems.

PAllen said:
In any case, the following wording was misleading:

"a unique transport path is specified, with a unique result"

You don't have to worry about all paths, but you do have to worry about all null paths light actually follows, and compute a separate redshift for each.
 
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  • #84
TrickyDicky said:
No, my specific question is not answered, I asked how you exactly calculate the relative velocity of the distant emitter.
As you admit below path dependence is not removed, so I won't enter into that issue.

Path dependence issue remains only to the extent of multiple light paths from emitter to receiver. Then, a separate calculation is needed for each light path. Other possible paths are not a concern.
TrickyDicky said:
I don't think is complete, you still need to calculate the distant relative velocity. And to do it you must use some additional information like the observed Hubble parameter that not only uses observed redshifts but luminosities, to pick the unique null path that leads to a unique relative velocity for the distant emitter, in the end the formula must equal the scale factors ratio of the cosmological redshift, Synge's is basically an algebraic reordering of this.

You need only the metric to compute the null path(s) light follows. All you need is emitter world line, receiver world, and metric to apply the method. You don't need to care about what is cosmological or gravitational. Effectively, all geometric influences come into play by determining the null geodesics and also how the parallel transport acts.
TrickyDicky said:
I'm not saying Synge (and Hogg and Bunn) "prescription" is wrong, I think it is purely an interpretational(almost just about terminology) issue, no matter how you call it (Doppler or cosmological redshift) the result must be the same, and yes, it can be computed in one step.
 
  • #85
PAllen said:
You need only the metric to compute the null path(s) light follows.
When you say the metric I hope you realize that except the static case(where you can clearly separate the gravitational and doppler parts), this metric must include a scale factor that is a proper distances ratio, to decide the proper distance from the emitter we need to use information independent of the Hubble law, like luminosities, cosmological distance ladder, etc to try to come up with the most accurate Hubble parameter. All that must be included in the metric's scale factor and in a reliable calculation of the distant emitter relative velocity because that additional info is what allows us to pick the "unique" path.
For some reason you seem to avoid admitting that.

You don't need to care about what is cosmological or gravitational.
Certainly, I never said you needed to.
 
  • #86
TrickyDicky said:
When you say the metric I hope you realize that except the static case(where you can clearly separate the gravitational and doppler parts), this metric must include a scale factor that is a proper distances ratio, to decide the proper distance from the emitter we need to use information independent of the Hubble law, like luminosities, cosmological distance ladder, etc to try to come up with the most accurate Hubble parameter. All that must be included in the metric's scale factor and in a reliable calculation of the distant emitter relative velocity because that additional info is what allows us to pick the "unique" path.
For some reason you seem to avoid admitting that.

I'm just saying you don't need to worry about it in any explicit way. Given a spacetime with metric, and two world lines, you have a recipe to follow. How you arrive at a metric for the real world is an independent questions.
 
  • #87
PAllen said:
How you arrive at a metric for the real world is an independent questions.

Yes, but it needs to be answered for any real computation. I just wanted to point out ( for those that might have taken wrong "Synge's prescription") that using the relativistic doppler formula with relative velocity in GR is equivalent to the cosmological redshift formula normally used in cosmology. It adds nothing new.

It all really comes down to the fact there is only one redshift observed (and I'm restricting here to the remote or cosmological case), whatever one wants to call it, and that redshift can be arbitrarily decomposed in a doppler and a gravitational part in any possible way depending on the context and the interpretational bias, from purely doppler as in Synge's (also Hogg&Bunn) way, in a gravitational part plus a doppler part with all the range of different proportions, and in a purely gravitational redshift way although this last interpretation is less frequent.
 
  • #88
TrickyDicky said:
that redshift can be arbitrarily decomposed in a doppler and a gravitational part in any possible way depending on the context and the interpretational bias, from purely doppler as in Synge's (also Hogg&Bunn) way, in a gravitational part plus a doppler part with all the range of different proportions, and in a purely gravitational redshift way although this last interpretation is less frequent.
I agree. Because of that, I would rather not decompose it at all and simply state what the redshift is without attributing one arbitrary part of it to gravity and the rest to motion. Only the total redshift is measurable.
 
  • #89
TrickyDicky said:
Yes, but it needs to be answered for any real computation. I just wanted to point out ( for those that might have taken wrong "Synge's prescription") that using the relativistic doppler formula with relative velocity in GR is equivalent to the cosmological redshift formula normally used in cosmology. It adds nothing new.

It all really comes down to the fact there is only one redshift observed (and I'm restricting here to the remote or cosmological case), whatever one wants to call it, and that redshift can be arbitrarily decomposed in a doppler and a gravitational part in any possible way depending on the context and the interpretational bias, from purely doppler as in Synge's (also Hogg&Bunn) way, in a gravitational part plus a doppler part with all the range of different proportions, and in a purely gravitational redshift way although this last interpretation is less frequent.

What it adds is a uniform algorithm for computing the most general cases. This algorithm is intuitive and has a reasonable physical interpretation: the light carries information about emitter motion as it travels to the receiver.

As to factoring, I agree: my point has always been that there is no need to factor, and factoring is only possible if there is well defined family of static observers (or a well defined family of comoving observers for the cosmological case). Even in such cases, factoring is optional - it is just a computational shortcut.

Also, I don't interpret Synge's procedure as saying 'all is relative motion'. I would describe it as: red shift is caused by relative motion mediated by intervening curvature in a specific way. The curvature determines the light path, and also determines how the emitter motion is 'carried' to the receiver (that is, it affects how the parallel transport carries the emitter 4-velocity).
 
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  • #90
DaleSpam said:
I agree. Because of that, I would rather not decompose it at all and simply state what the redshift is without attributing one arbitrary part of it to gravity and the rest to motion. Only the total redshift is measurable.

Yeah, that would haved saved quite a few disputes around here and in the cosmology subforum.
 
  • #91
Well, I guess its time this topic was put to bed. I don’t seem to have convinced anyone of my views, and nobody has convinced me of theirs. So I guess that makes us even!

Generally the arguments I have been presented with follow the lines of “Black Holes exist, and I am wrong because …”

1. I have misinterpreted the mathematicians.
All my quotes were in English, and where necessary, had been translated by others. English is my home language, and no interpretation was necessary as I was simply quoting what they had said.

2. You can’t trust words, You can only trust the maths.
But you need words to explain what the maths means. Pg = N/Tv doesn’t mean a thing until words are used to explain what Pg etc means.

3. General Relativity fails at the Event Horizon.
No it doesn’t. It only fails, if at all, at the singularity in the centre of the Black Hole.

4. Schwarzschild coordinates don’t work at the Event Horizon.
Not quite. Schwarzschild is valid outside the Black Hole, right up to the Event Horizon.

5. Other coordinate systems, eg.Einstein-Finklestein and Kruskal-Szekeres coordinates, cover the whole continuum both inside and outside the Event Horizon.
But outside the EH they become Schwarzschild anyway, right up to the Event Horizon. They don't show that a BH will form in a finite time for a distant observer.

6. You can get an Event Horizon 1 light year behind you by accelerating at 1g.
But this tells us nothing about time dilation observed for a distant collapsing superstar. You can stop accelerating, and reverse direction, but you can’t reverse a Black Hole.

7. The calculations are based on ideal conditions such as spherical symmetry, and any small deviation from symmetry would cause a Black Hole to form rapidly.
Every improvement in the calculations to date - adding pressure, rotation, computer simulations, has so far produced the same result. Where is the evidence for small perturbations producing a different result? This argument was presented by Saul Teukolsky, with nothing to back it up.

8. Time Dilation is a redshift illusion caused by the delay of successive photons leaving a falling object.
Wrong. If the object was hovering near the EH, it would be time-dilated, and we would see a redshift which has nothing to do with the time photons take, as all photons would take the same time to reach us. Time dilation is real, and the distant observer's take on things is just as valid as that of the guy falling into a Black Hole.

9. Calculations show that it is possible for naked singularities to form.
According to Saul Teukolsky, who did the calculations, they only work for axisymmetrical objects. The next time you see a large can of beans (his example) in the centre of a galaxy, let me know.

Nobody has yet produced a calculation showing that a Black Hole can form in a finite time for a distant observer. All the calculations so far show that time dilation wins and a Black Hole only forms after an infinite time as a frozen star, as far as any distant observer is concerned. Not one of my critics has produced calculations to prove me (and Oppenheimer, et al) wrong.

I rest my case.

Many thanks to PAllen, PeterDonis, and all the other contributors, who have taught me a lot, but haven’t changed my mind.

Mike
 
  • #92
Mike Holland said:
Generally the arguments I have been presented with follow the lines of “Black Holes exist, and I am wrong because …”
I don't think that anyone has asserted the existence of black holes. Merely explained that your reasons for asserting their non-existence are wrong.

Mike Holland said:
4. Schwarzschild coordinates don’t work at the Event Horizon.
Not quite. Schwarzschild is valid outside the Black Hole, right up to the Event Horizon.
Up to, but not including the event horizon. In GR coordinate charts are defined on open subsets of the manifold, so they do not include the boundary. In the case of Schwarzschild coordinates they do not include the event horizon, nor any of the events on the interior of the event horizon.

Mike Holland said:
5. Other coordinate systems, eg.Einstein-Finklestein and Kruskal-Szekeres coordinates, cover the whole continuum both inside and outside the Event Horizon.
But outside the EH they become Schwarzschild anyway, right up to the Event Horizon. They don't show that a BH will form in a finite time for a distant observer.
This is simply false.

Mike Holland said:
6. You can get an Event Horizon 1 light year behind you by accelerating at 1g.
But this tells us nothing about time dilation observed for a distant collapsing superstar.
True, but it does tell you something about the nature of event horizons. Specifically, that the existence of an event horizon does not imply the non-existence of events beyond the horizon. It also shows that you cannot determine the existence or non-existence of an event by exclusively considering the information received by a single "preferred" observer. All observers are equally valid.

Mike Holland said:
Nobody has yet produced a calculation showing that a Black Hole can form in a finite time for a distant observer. All the calculations so far show that time dilation wins and a Black Hole only forms after an infinite time as a frozen star, as far as any distant observer is concerned. Not one of my critics has produced calculations to prove me (and Oppenheimer, et al) wrong.
I haven't looked into this in detail, but isn't there a period of time during which the event horizon exists, and is a smaller radius than the ball of dust. During this time I thought that the EH is expanding and particles cross the event horizon in a finite amount of coordinate time.

And again, even if you are correct, you forget that a distant observer is not a "preferred" observer in any way, so his measurements are not the sole arbiter of existence or non-existence.
 
  • #93
DaleSpam said:
True, but it does tell you something about the nature of event horizons. Specifically, that the existence of an event horizon does not imply the non-existence of events beyond the horizon. It also shows that you cannot determine the existence or non-existence of an event by exclusively considering the information received by a single "preferred" observer. All observers are equally valid..

I have never denied anything about the interior of a Black Hole. What I have said is that the existence or non-existence of that space depends on your point of view. And I have said over and over that all viewpoints (reference frames) are equally valid.

But we can more-or-less group those equally valid observers into two sub-groups - those outside any Black Holes, and those on the Event Horizons or inside. For the latter group, Event Horizons exist and the space (if you can call it that, with two space dimensions and a (null) time dimension) exist. But all the mathematics produced so far says that for the former sub-group Black Holes do not exist and they will take an infinite time to form. This sub-group is a little bit special just because we are in it, and that is why I say WE cannot say Black Holes exist - they don't in our time-frame! Not until OUR clocks read infinity!

I understand the argument that just before a Black Hole forms, there are photons emitted in the centre which will never be able to escape in time, so there is effectively an Event Horizon growing in the centre. But I don't believe this quite cuts the cake as an EH, because photons are not being turned back there, and there is not infinite time dilation there - the gravitational potential is not high enough yet.

Mike
 
  • #94
Mike Holland said:
But we can more-or-less group those equally valid observers into two sub-groups - those outside any Black Holes, and those on the Event Horizons or inside.
This is fine.

Mike Holland said:
all the mathematics produced so far says that for the former sub-group Black Holes do not exist
This is false on multiple counts. First, the existence or non-existence of an event in the manifold is a property of the topology of the manifold itself, not a property of any coordinate chart which may be imposed on top of the manifold. Second, even if you replaced "do not exist" by something like "are not covered by their coordinate chart" the statement is still false since the EH and the black hole are in fact covered by many coordinate charts of observers which are outside the black hole, e.g. free-falling observers which are outside.

I think that the first point is the key conceptual error you are making. Whether or not something exists has nothing to do with any coordinate chart, so your argument based on Schwarzschild coordinates is completely irrelevant to the question of the existence of the event horizon.
 
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  • #95
DaleSpam said:
First, the existence or non-existence of an event in the manifold is a property of the topology of the manifold itself, not a property of any coordinate chart which may be imposed on top of the manifold. Second, even if you replaced "do not exist" by something like "are not covered by their coordinate chart" the statement is still false since the EH and the black hole are in fact covered by many coordinate charts of observers which are outside the black hole, e.g. free-falling observers which are outside.

I think that the first point is the key conceptual error you are making. Whether or not something exists has nothing to do with any coordinate chart, so your argument based on Schwarzschild coordinates is completely irrelevant to the question of the existence of the event horizon.

I think the only problem here is the use of English. I believe it is wrong to say "dinosaurs exist". WE from out point in space-time can only say they DID exist. Similarly I cannot say my great-great-grandsons exist. I can only say they WILL exist (I hope!)

These things may all exist in the manifold, but relative to our "now" in the manifold we cannot say they DO exist NOW. Remember that in all my discussion I am talking about the space-time that WE are living in NOW.

Mike

Edit: I don't think we have a disagreement here. You are looking at the plenum from God's perspective, so to speak, while I am looking at it from the viewpoint of a humble mortal!
 
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  • #96
Mike Holland said:
I think the only problem here is the use of English. I believe it is wrong to say "dinosaurs exist". WE from out point in space-time can only say they DID exist.
That's fair enough, but if you said "dinosaurs don't exist", I think that, the way language is commonly used, many people could interpret that to mean that you thought dinosaurs have never existed, though you really meant, "they no longer exist now".

The situation with black holes is a little more subtle. Although anyone who stays outside an event horizon cannot see what is inside it (or "will be inside it"?), you do have the option to go inside and have a look (technology permitting) if you want to, within a finite amount of your own time (though the rest of us will never hear from you again). So is it really fair to say the inside "doesn't exist"?

You may say, we have no direct experimental evidence to prove what happens inside an event horizon, which is true enough, but we do have a theory that predicts what ought to happen; we are talking about "existence" in the context of what the theory predicts.
 
  • #97
Ok, DrGreg, then what I should be saying for us outside viewers is "don't exist YET". Black holes will exist, in our infinite future, or in our very finite future if we fall into supermassive collapsing stars.

Mike
 
  • #98
Mike Holland said:
Remember that in all my discussion I am talking about the space-time that WE are living in NOW.

But NOW does not have an invariant meaning; it depends on your choice of simultaneity convention. There are ways to choose a simultaneity convention so that the black hole at the center of the Milky Way galaxy exists NOW.
 
  • #99
Mike Holland said:
I think the only problem here is the use of English. I believe it is wrong to say "dinosaurs exist". WE from out point in space-time can only say they DID exist. Similarly I cannot say my great-great-grandsons exist. I can only say they WILL exist (I hope!)

These things may all exist in the manifold, but relative to our "now" in the manifold we cannot say they DO exist NOW. Remember that in all my discussion I am talking about the space-time that WE are living in NOW.
Roughly speaking, you can divide the spacetime up into three regions, the interior of the future light cone, the interior of the past light cone, and the exterior of the light cone. Events that will exist are in the first region, events that did exist are in the second, and all other events can be considered to exist "now", in a coordinate independent sense. In the Schwarzschild spacetime, the interior of the black hole is in the [STRIKE]second[/STRIKE] first and third regions, so it should be considered to exist now and in the future. If anything, you would say only that it did not exist in the past.
 
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  • #100
Thinking out of the box (or stupidly?) black holes cannot get created in the lifetime of the Universe. Either they always existed from the beginning of the Universe, or they do not exist. Any black holes that exist, cannot grow into more massive black holes by acquiring mass.

Consider the theory of creation of a black hole from the collapse of a massive star because of its own gravity. To begin with, it is all ordinary matter. At some stage of collapse then, it must 'create' a core black hole, with matter passing through the event horizon to 'grow' the black hole further.

The problem is, a black hole cannot grow by acquiring mass from outside the event horizon. Ordinary matter has 'extent', however small. So when the leading edge of such matter reaches (or tries to reach forever?) the event horizon, the rest of the matter has to protrude outside of the even horizon, because of the 'extent' of the matter. A black hole would therefore get quickly covered by a film of interstellar material, parts of which will remain outside the even horizon.

As more matter falls in towards the event horizon, the existing film of matter outside the even horizon will prevent them from reaching the event horizon. So, the black hole will soon get covered by increasingly thick spherical shells of ordinary matter. It will first grow into something like a planet, and then possibly rapidly into a star, given its strong gravity!

Now, if a black hole cannot grow using ordinary matter, how can it even form the 'core' in the first place?
 
  • #101
DaleSpam said:
Roughly speaking, you can divide the spacetime up into three regions, the interior of the future light cone, the interior of the past light cone, and the exterior of the light cone. Events that will exist are in the first region, events that did exist are in the second, and all other events can be considered to exist "now", in a coordinate independent sense. In the Schwarzschild spacetime, the interior of the black hole is in the second and third regions, so it should be considered to exist now and in the future. If anything, you would say only that it did not exist in the past.

Slight confusion here. No light can leave the interior of a Black Hole, so how could any light from the interior be in my or your past light cone (second region)?

Similarly, you can choose the past light cone for any point in the third region, and nothing will have entered this cone from the inside of an event horizon.

So the inside of a black hole is not in the past light cone of any observer remote from the black hole.

The inside of a black hole is never in the past light cone of any observer, now or in a trillion years time, unless the observer falls into the black hole. The inside exists only for the inside. It does not exist for outside observers.

Mike
 
  • #102
PeterDonis said:
But NOW does not have an invariant meaning; it depends on your choice of simultaneity convention. There are ways to choose a simultaneity convention so that the black hole at the center of the Milky Way galaxy exists NOW.

If the hole exists now, then it should be in our past light cone in about 27,000 years. Now you please tell me how long it takes for a photon to escape from the event horizon and become part of our past light cone. What simultaneity convention will get it here in 27,000 years?

Edit: I think you will find that as the supermassive object at the centre of the galaxy enters our past light cone, the cone becomes distorted - photons don't simply fly from there to here at c anymore, and photons from the EH never get here.

Mike
 
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  • #103
Mike Holland said:
Slight confusion here. No light can leave the interior of a Black Hole, so how could any light from the interior be in my or your past light cone (second region)?
Oops, good catch. I messed up my own numbering. I meant that the interior was in the first and third regions (future and present), not second and third (past and present). I have corrected it above.

Mike Holland said:
The inside exists only for the inside. It does not exist for outside observers.
No, remember your emphasis on the proper tense. For outside observers the inside exists in the present and will exist in the future. For outside observers it did not exist in the past.
 
  • #104
Mike Holland said:
If the hole exists now, then it should be in our past light cone in about 27,000 years.
No. Its existence or non existence "now" has nothing to do with some future events past light cone. It has only to do with whether or not it is in the manifold in the region which is space like separated from our present event. Chances are that we will not even exist in 27000 years to have a past light cone.
 
  • #105
DaleSpam said:
No. Its existence or non existence "now" has nothing to do with some future events past light cone. It has only to do with whether or not it is in the manifold in the region which is space like separated from our present event. Chances are that we will not even exist in 27000 years to have a past light cone.

You are trying to ignore time and only look at space separation to decide whether something exists "now". But from this god-like perspective where time is just another dimension, all things exist in the eternal "now".

All the calculations show that there is a separation of infinite time in addition to the separation of finite space between an event horizon and its insides, and the remote observer. Because you insist on believing in Black Holes, you choose to ignore this. Do you not believe in gravitational time dilation?

As I have said before, I am looking at ther world from our perspective, and light cones are relevant in deciding what is in our past and what will be in our past. The insides of Black Holes willl never be in our past light cones (or anyone else's), wherever they might exist in the manifold, as long as we don't make the stupid mistake of falling into one.

Mike
 
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