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A metric (or dot-product) where the eigenvector axes (along the future-forward and future-backward lightcone) are orthogonal [itex] \vec u \cdot \vec v=0 [/itex] can't capture the causal character of the vectors with a Minkowski metric.
[itex] \vec u +\vec v [/itex] is a timelike vector in Minkowski spacetime, and
[itex] \vec u -\vec v [/itex] is a spacelike vector in Minkowski spacetime. (Think radar measurements.)
But
[itex] (\vec u+\vec v)\cdot(\vec u+\vec v)=(\vec u \cdot \vec u)+(\vec v \cdot \vec v) +2 (\vec u \cdot \vec v)=
(\vec u \cdot \vec u)+(\vec v \cdot \vec v)
[/itex]
and
[itex] (\vec u-\vec v)\cdot(\vec u-\vec v)=(\vec u \cdot \vec u)+(\vec v \cdot \vec v) -2 (\vec u \cdot \vec v)=
(\vec u \cdot \vec u)+(\vec v \cdot \vec v)
[/itex]
means that this metric (dot-product) doesn't distinguish timelike from spacelike.
From my "rotated graph paper" approach, the Minkowski metric for (1+1)-Minkowski spacetime seems to be captured by the signed area of the diamond for the vector along the diagonal of that diamond. This area (on this plane) does not rely on the dot-product of either Minkowski spacetime or Euclidean space.UPDATE:
One could also consider the eigenvectors of the Galilean transformation in (1+1)-Galilean spacetime…. the PHY 101 position-v-time graph.
Again, there are no timelike eigenvectors (in accord with the Relativity Principle).
There is an eigenvector which Galilean-null and Galilean-spacelike [absolute time] (using the degenerate temporal-metric [itex] \left( \begin{array}{cc} 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 \end{array} \right)[/itex] )
and its eigenvalue is 1 ["absolute length"].
As in the Minkowski case, I don’t think Euclidean geometry can capture the Galilean structure.
Spacetime geometry is a non-Euclidean geometry.
[itex] \vec u +\vec v [/itex] is a timelike vector in Minkowski spacetime, and
[itex] \vec u -\vec v [/itex] is a spacelike vector in Minkowski spacetime. (Think radar measurements.)
But
[itex] (\vec u+\vec v)\cdot(\vec u+\vec v)=(\vec u \cdot \vec u)+(\vec v \cdot \vec v) +2 (\vec u \cdot \vec v)=
(\vec u \cdot \vec u)+(\vec v \cdot \vec v)
[/itex]
and
[itex] (\vec u-\vec v)\cdot(\vec u-\vec v)=(\vec u \cdot \vec u)+(\vec v \cdot \vec v) -2 (\vec u \cdot \vec v)=
(\vec u \cdot \vec u)+(\vec v \cdot \vec v)
[/itex]
means that this metric (dot-product) doesn't distinguish timelike from spacelike.
From my "rotated graph paper" approach, the Minkowski metric for (1+1)-Minkowski spacetime seems to be captured by the signed area of the diamond for the vector along the diagonal of that diamond. This area (on this plane) does not rely on the dot-product of either Minkowski spacetime or Euclidean space.UPDATE:
One could also consider the eigenvectors of the Galilean transformation in (1+1)-Galilean spacetime…. the PHY 101 position-v-time graph.
Again, there are no timelike eigenvectors (in accord with the Relativity Principle).
There is an eigenvector which Galilean-null and Galilean-spacelike [absolute time] (using the degenerate temporal-metric [itex] \left( \begin{array}{cc} 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 \end{array} \right)[/itex] )
and its eigenvalue is 1 ["absolute length"].
As in the Minkowski case, I don’t think Euclidean geometry can capture the Galilean structure.
Spacetime geometry is a non-Euclidean geometry.
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