Can a Magnet Make Objects Fall Faster than Terminal Velocity?

AI Thread Summary
A magnet attracted to the ground could potentially fall faster than its terminal velocity, depending on the definition of terminal velocity used. If terminal velocity is defined as the speed at which drag equals the object's weight, the magnet could exceed this speed. However, if terminal velocity is defined as the point where air drag results in zero net force, then it cannot fall faster than this limit. The discussion highlights the importance of definitions in understanding the physics of falling objects. Ultimately, the context of terminal velocity is crucial in determining the fall speed of a magnet.
Sheshonk
Messages
1
Reaction score
0
So, someone said the random quote "We dropped him faster than a magnet".

So my question is, if this proposed magnet were attracted to the ground, could it go faster than terminal velocity? Or is terminal velocity the fastest something can fall?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
It depends on how you define terminal velocity. If you defined terminal velocity to be how fast an object is falling when drag is equal to the object's weight, then yes, the magnet will fall faster than its terminal velocity. If you define it to be the point at which air drag causes the net force on an object to be zero, then no, terminal velocity is, by definition, as fast as an object can fall.
 
Thread 'Is 'Velocity of Transport' a Recognized Term in English Mechanics Literature?'
Here are two fragments from Banach's monograph in Mechanics I have never seen the term <<velocity of transport>> in English texts. Actually I have never seen this term being named somehow in English. This term has a name in Russian books. I looked through the original Banach's text in Polish and there is a Polish name for this term. It is a little bit surprising that the Polish name differs from the Russian one and also differs from this English translation. My question is: Is there...
This has been discussed many times on PF, and will likely come up again, so the video might come handy. Previous threads: https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/is-a-treadmill-incline-just-a-marketing-gimmick.937725/ https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/work-done-running-on-an-inclined-treadmill.927825/ https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/how-do-we-calculate-the-energy-we-used-to-do-something.1052162/
Hi there, im studying nanoscience at the university in Basel. Today I looked at the topic of intertial and non-inertial reference frames and the existence of fictitious forces. I understand that you call forces real in physics if they appear in interplay. Meaning that a force is real when there is the "actio" partner to the "reactio" partner. If this condition is not satisfied the force is not real. I also understand that if you specifically look at non-inertial reference frames you can...
Back
Top