Can Sum to Product Inequalities Hold for Non-Negative Reals?

In summary, sum to product inequalities are mathematical inequalities that involve the sum and product of variables. To solve them, the sum must be isolated and rewritten using trigonometric identities before using algebraic manipulations to find the variable. These inequalities are important in establishing relationships and solving for unknown values in various fields. They can also be applied to other types of equations by using trigonometric identities to rewrite them as sums or products.
  • #1
lfdahl
Gold Member
MHB
749
0
Given non-negative reals, $\alpha_i$, where $i = 1,2,...,n.$

Prove, that

$\alpha_1+\alpha_2+...+\alpha_n \leq \frac{1}{2}$ $\Rightarrow$ $(1-\alpha_1)(1-\alpha_2)...(1-\alpha_n) \geq \frac{1}{2}.$
 
Mathematics news on Phys.org
  • #2
Immediate consequence of Weiertrass inequality:

$$\prod_{1 \le k \le n}(1-a_k) \ge 1-\sum_{1 \le k \le n}a_k \ge 1-\frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{2}.$$

There's an elegant proof of Weierstrass inequality.
 
  • #3
June29 said:
Immediate consequence of Weiertrass inequality:

$$\prod_{1 \le k \le n}(1-a_k) \ge 1-\sum_{1 \le k \le n}a_k \ge 1-\frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{2}.$$

There's an elegant proof of Weierstrass inequality.
Thankyou for a clever solution, June29, and for your participation!(Cool)
 
  • #4
Can anyone prove the above statement by induction? (Wave)
 
  • #5
lfdahl said:
Can anyone prove the above statement by induction? (Wave)

It's obviously true for $n=1$ since we have $ {\alpha}_1 \leqslant \frac{1}{2} = 1-\frac{1}{2} \implies 1-\alpha_1 \geqslant \frac{1}{2}. $

Now, suppose it's true for $n = k \in \mathbb{N}$. We shall prove that it's true for $n=k+1$. $\displaystyle \begin{aligned} \frac{1}{2} & \leqslant 1- \sum_{1 \leqslant j \leqslant k+1}\alpha_j = 1-\alpha_{k+1}-\sum_{1 \leqslant j \leqslant k}\alpha_j \leqslant 1-\alpha_{k+1}-\sum_{1 \leqslant j \leqslant k}\alpha_j+a_{k+1}\sum_{1 \leqslant j \leqslant k} \alpha_j \\& =\left(1-\alpha_{k+1}\right)\left(1-\sum_{1 \leqslant j \leqslant k} \alpha_j\right)
\leqslant \left(1-\alpha_{k+1}\right) \prod_{1 \leqslant j \leqslant k} \left(1-\alpha_j \right) = \prod_{1 \leqslant j \leqslant k+1} \left(1-\alpha_j \right) \end{aligned} $

So it's true for $n=k+1$. Since it's true for $n=1, k+1$, it's true for all $n\in\mathbb{N}$.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
  • #6
June29 said:
It's obviously true for $n=1$ since we have $ {\alpha}_1 \leqslant \frac{1}{2} = 1-\frac{1}{2} \implies 1-\alpha_1 \geqslant \frac{1}{2}. $

Now, suppose it's true for $n = k \in \mathbb{N}$. We shall prove that it's true for $n=k+1$. $\displaystyle \begin{aligned} \frac{1}{2} & \leqslant 1- \sum_{1 \leqslant j \leqslant k+1}\alpha_j = 1-\alpha_{k+1}-\sum_{1 \leqslant j \leqslant k}\alpha_j \leqslant 1-\alpha_{k+1}-\sum_{1 \leqslant j \leqslant k}\alpha_j+a_{k+1}\sum_{1 \leqslant j \leqslant k} \alpha_j \\& =\left(1-\alpha_{k+1}\right)\left(1-\sum_{1 \leqslant j \leqslant k} \alpha_j\right)
\leqslant \left(1-\alpha_{k+1}\right) \prod_{1 \leqslant j \leqslant k} \left(1-\alpha_j \right) = \prod_{1 \leqslant j \leqslant k+1} \left(1-\alpha_j \right) \end{aligned} $

So it's true for $n=k+1$. Since it's true for $n=1, k+1$, it's true for all $n\in\mathbb{N}$.

A nice solution, June29! Thankyou for your participation!

Please remember to hide your solution in SP tags. Other forum users might try to solve the challenge preferably without knowing your solution. Thankyou in advance!
 
Back
Top