MHB Can Trigonometry and Geometry Prove that ab+pq is Not Prime?

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The discussion focuses on proving that the expression ab + pq is not prime, given the conditions on integers a, b, p, and q. It presents the equation ap + bq as a product of two factors, highlighting the relationship between these variables. The participants emphasize the application of trigonometric and geometric concepts to solve this number theory problem. The solution showcases the intersection of different mathematical disciplines in addressing prime number properties. Overall, the thread illustrates a creative approach to proving non-primality through geometric and trigonometric reasoning.
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Let $a,\,b,\,p,\,q$ be integers with $a>b>p>q>0$.

Suppose that $ap+bq=(b+q+a-p)(b+q-a+p)$.

Prove that $ab+pq$ is not prime.
 
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anemone said:
Let $a,\,b,\,p,\,q$ be integers with $a>b>p>q>0--(1)$.

Suppose that $ap+bq=(b+q+a-p)(b+q-a+p)---(2)$.

Prvoe that $ab+pq$ is not prime.
from (1)(2)we must have:
$p\geq q+1$
$b\geq q+2$
$a\geq q+3$
$ap+bq\geq (q+2+q+q+3-q-1)(q+2+q-q-3+q+1)=(2q+4)(2q)$
is not prime
$\therefore ab+pq\geq (q+2)(q+3)+(q+1)q=2q^2+6q+6$
is not prime
 
Thanks, Albert for participating and also the solution. :)

I want to share with MHB a solution that I thought is great to showcase how trigonometric and geometry skills could be used to tackle a number theory problem such as this one, and I hope you will like it as much as I do:
View attachment 3889

The equality $ap+bq=(b+q+a-p)(b+q-a+p)$ is equivalent to $a^2-ap+p^2=b^2+bq+q^2\tag{1}$.

Let $ABPQ$ be the quadrilateral with $AB=a,\,BP=q,\,PQ=b,\,AQ=p,\,\angle BAQ=60^{\circ}$ and $\angle BPQ=120^{\circ}$.

Such a quadrilateral exists in view of the equation we obtained in (1) and the Law of Cosines.

The common value in (1) is $BQ^2$. Let $\angle ABP=\theta$ so that $\angle PQA=180^{\circ}-\theta$.

Applying the Law of Cosines to triangles $ABP$ and $APQ$ gives

$a^2+q^2-2aq\cos \theta=b^2+p^2+2bp\cos \theta$

Hence $2\cos \theta=\dfrac{a^2+q^2-b^2-p^2}{aq+bp}$ and $AP^2=a^2+q^2-aq\left(\dfrac{a^2+q^2-b^2-p^2}{aq+bp}\right)=\dfrac{(ab+pq)(ap+bq)}{aq+bp}$.

Because $ABPQ$ is cyclic, Ptolemny's Theorem gives $(AP\cdot BQ)^2=(ab+pq)^2$.

It follows that

$\dfrac{(ab+pq)(ap+bq)}{aq+bp}\cdot (a^2-ap+p^2)=(ab+pq)^2$.

or simply $(ap+bq)(a^2-ap+p^2)=(ab+pq)(aq+bp)$.

Next, observe that
$ab+pq>ap+bq>aq+bp\tag{2}$.

The first inequality follows from $(a-q)(b-p)>0$, and the second from $(a-b)(p-q)>0$.

Now, assume that $ab+pq$ is prime, it then follows from (2) that $ab+pq$ and $ap+bq$ are relatively prime. Hence, from $(ap+bq)(a^2-ap+p^2)=(ab+pq)(aq+bp)$, it must be true that $ap+bq$ divides $aq+bp$.

However, this is impossible by (2). Thus $ab+pq$ must not be prime.

One example that satisfies the given conditions is $(65,\,50,\,34,\,11)$.
 

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