- #36
Mentat
- 3,960
- 3
Originally posted by drag
Because they don't have one, unless it is
self-referential of course...
Is this inductive or deductive reasoning?
Originally posted by drag
Because they don't have one, unless it is
self-referential of course...
Originally posted by drag
Greetings !
Welcome to PF Opiner !
Well, you are correct about this issue
being far from settled. What I did say
is that regardless of the interpretation
the currently accepted theory of QM does not
allow for classical determinism and hence
classical causality. Not just due to the
HUP and wave-particle duality but also due to
lack of individuality - identity (and perhaps
other principles I'm a bit too tired to
remember right now, sorry).
Live long and prosper.
No, QM does not allow for such separation.Originally posted by Mentat
And yet all of the things you mention allow
for the existence of an "observer", which
would exist as a separate entity to that which
is "observed".
It is a simple scientific fact, for now.Originally posted by Mentat
Is this inductive or deductive reasoning?
Originally posted by drag
No, QM does not allow for such separation.
Originally posted by drag
It is a simple scientific fact, for now.
In which case you yourself are in a superpositionOriginally posted by Mentat
Have you forgotten Schrodinger's Cat entirely?
The state remains undertermined, until observed.
I can not define science - observation as beingOriginally posted by Mentat
You aren't answering my question.
I was referring to SPECIFIC basic entities in science.Originally posted by Mentat
Besides, since when is it a scientific fact that all
things that are "basic", are undefinable? This may
(emphasis on the "may") be philosophically
true, but that doesn't mean that it is a
scientific fact.
Originally posted by drag
In which case you yourself are in a superposition
of states. Though, I heard that modern experiments
have shown that WF collapse is quite delicate.
In addition you can not possibly be objective
or a separate observer where particles have
no identity. Basicly, according to QM you can
not define any distinct particles and the
only time you know they are somewhere (without
knowing which) is when you, supposedly, observe them.
So, I could have a free electron in my body
exchanged with a free electron from the keyboard
and it will seemingly be the same electron
as it interacts with other particles in my body.
In fact, it is meaningless to say that this electron
belongs to my body and that one belongs to the
table - I have no possible way of knowing this for
certain. It's just a liekly assumption.
To sum up - QM forbids the observer/observed
separation, period.
Live long and prosper.
Originally posted by drag
I can not define science - observation as being
either an inductive or a deductive process,
'cause I got no idea.
I was referring to SPECIFIC basic entities in science.
Further more, there were just 8 words in my relevant
message and it appears that you did not read the
last 2.
Look, I will not continue to argue thisOriginally posted by Mentat
Still wrong, as QM does allow for there to be
individiual particles, it just doesn't allow
you to describe their position (or any other
part of their current state) accurately.
However, when you get to large, complex,
beings - like humans - you get the distinction
between observer and the observed, even though
the large, complex, being's position is not
perfectly definable either.
Originally posted by drag
Greetings Mentat !
Look, I will not continue to argue this
point because I am no expert in the field
and hence do not have the knowledge to do
this with full accuracy and validity as you
would probably prefer. I do, however, know
that QM is said not to allow observer/observed
separation for the general reasons I explained above.
For more details you could pose a question
to the real experts in one of the physics forums.
Live long and prosper.
AGAIN, I referred to SPECIFIC BASICS - WITHINOriginally posted by Mentat
I'm not talking about Science, I'm talking about
things that are "basic". You said that they
are all undefinable. I asked how you knew that,
and you responded, "Because they don't
have [a definition], unless it is self-referential
of course...". I asked you if this was inductive
(meaning that you had actually tried to define
every single "basic" entity, and found that this
was true in all cases) or deductive (meaning that
you had followed logical premises to this conclusion)
reasoning.
Please, explain an electron.Originally posted by Mentat
I read it, but I disagree, as I don't think
it is a fact now, or that it has ever been.
Originally posted by drag
Greetings again, Mentat !
AGAIN, I referred to SPECIFIC BASICS - WITHIN
SCIENCE. NOT to ALL basics (whatever that might mean).
We were discussing causality and I said that
you can NOT decide if it's true - in response to
your original question, because even when it
was considered a scientific principle it was
a basic one - self-referential/unexplained
Now, in science a basic thing has a name and
certain characteristics discribed by the way
this basic thing is incorporated into our likely
model of observation. Hence, by definition it
has no explanation, until one is invented - theorized,
which in turn relies on other basics or is
self-referential. Clear ?
Clearly we had a misunderstanding, becauseOriginally posted by Mentat
That's exactly what you referred to.
Just read the third post of the third page of this thread.
Because basic is supposed to be a conceptOriginally posted by Mentat
I was asking why you immediately make this connection
(between being basic, and being unexplained).
[zz)]Originally posted by Mentat
Oh, ok, you are saying that if something is
definable, then you have to define the terms
used to define it, and so on ad infinitum or
until one runs into self-reference.
I don't think I understand what you'reOriginally posted by Mentat
While this is true, it is not practical, as
language is based on the use of words to
define words.
Originally posted by drag
I don't think I understand what you're
talking about here and how it's related ?
We use language in order to be able to communicateOriginally posted by Mentat
I'm talking about the fact that we can only communicate using some kind of language, and if we are using language, we are confined to it's rules - one of which is that words have meaning. So, if you ask me to define each word, and then define the words I used to define that word, and so on, you are just negating the use of language to describe phenomena, you are not negating my proof (as it exists within the confines of language).
Originally posted by drag
We use language in order to be able to communicate
concepts. We can agree/disagree about concepts,
can't we ? Further more, some concepts are
not rigorously defined, they are approximations
of observation that we use for simplification
of otherwise very complex ideas, like love, thrill,
awareness and so on. So, when you attempt to provide
such approximations with exact meaning (consciousness ?),
I must ask for your rigorous proof. And, like I
suspected to begin with , you don't have one.
Peace and long life.
You have proof of causality ?!Originally posted by Mentat
I have proof, but explaining it relies on the use
of words, and you seem bent on side-stepping my
argument by quibbling about the undefined nature of words.
Originally posted by drag
You have proof of causality ?!
No ! I just used it as an example in brackets.Originally posted by Mentat
You said "consciousness", in your last post. That's what I have proof of. I can't prove cause-and-effect - as is evident by the very existence of this thread.
Originally posted by drag
No ! I just used it as an example in brackets.
Now it's your turn to get confused between the 2 threads...
And I tell you again that meaning of wordsOriginally posted by Mentat
Well, the point is the same: Any proof that I offer, on any subject, will require that you take words for their inherent meaning, as stipulated by either a dictionary, or a textbook on the subject.
Originally posted by drag
And I tell you again that meaning of words
is not a precise definition because we have
many words with no precise definition. If you
want to prove something you should use words
that make sense according to some type
of reasoning system connected with observation
(preferably the seemingly most successful one - science).
Statements like "I'm conscious because I'm aware." or
"I think, therefor I am." have no concrete meaning
that is in consensus and thus none that we can discuss
and reason with together.
Anyway, what's your proof ?
Because words are a part of language andOriginally posted by Mentat
Why?
Did he agree with you ? And in case he did - did others ?Originally posted by Mentat
Not true. "I think therefore I am" was discussed rather
rigorously, by Manuel_Silvio and I, and the words need
not be rigorously defined for us to do so.
Science operates in a different way. ScienceOriginally posted by Mentat
My proof is the empirical data, taken from my own
personal experience of consciousness. If you like
science, you should respect empirical data taken
from your own personal experience.
Originally posted by drag
Because words are a part of language and
that in turn is a means of COMMUNICATION.
If we can not agree upon the precise meaning
of the words then we can not communicate efficiently.
Did he agree with you ? And in case he did - did others ?
Science operates in a different way. Science
adepts a reasoning system to the observed data
and then tries to make sense of it by translating
the data accordingly.
If you can define a reasoning system of some sort
(that is not unlikely - opposed by observation) and
then define the consciousness accordingly then
I'll adress your "empirical data".
The simple fact is that you (personally and at this time,
at least)can't formalize this piece of observation
in any clear manner. Remember that science does not
adress what it can not define and since consciousness
is not defined in science - there's no problem here.
I mean, you could say that science ignores it, but
that would in turn question all of the scientific
interpretations we have and throw them out the window.
Now that's a good approach - "agree to my meaning".Originally posted by Mentat
We could agree on their meaning, if you were willing to do so.
That would indeed require a lot of spare time.Originally posted by Mentat
I don't think anyone else has even read our posts, as no one
has commented for or against any of them. I really wish you
would read some of it. Perhaps you could copy it and paste it
on a word processor, and then you could read it in your spare time.
It assumes nothing. We get some data and we dealOriginally posted by Mentat
You see, it assumes that there are data to be observed
(as opposed to just "Mindul perceptions", to borrow a lifegazer
term), and that there is sense to be made out of them.
Perhaps you need to learn a bit about definitions.Originally posted by Mentat
How about the fact that you are thinking about what I have typed here?
I've used this kind of argument before, and it's undoubtedly true - if
you know what I have posted here, you are conscious of it.
These fields deal with physical approximations ofOriginally posted by Mentat
I don't think Science ignores it. We have such fields as
Psychology and Psychiatry (and even much of Sociology) which
deal with the conscious actions of human beings.
Originally posted by drag
Greetings Mentat !
Now that's a good approach - "agree to my meaning".
No, thanks. Not to mention that you can't even
explain your meaning (for a very good reason - it
has no satisfactory scientific explanation or definition).
That would indeed require a lot of spare time.
How about a short sum up(I'm pretty skeptical about this) ?
It assumes nothing.
We get some data and we deal
with it.
We do not deal with data if we don't get
any. We make probable asumptions by applying
various types of reasoning and theories to the data.
If some reasoning appears to apply and show consistentcy
according to the data then it would appear that it
"makes sense" of the data.
If you wan'na show that science is a belief
you can start a separate thread on this.
(And don't use Alexander's views as an example.)
Perhaps you need to learn a bit about definitions.
One, amongst others, interesting aspect of a definition
is that it should not contain itself. Another is
that it should have content.
These fields deal with physical approximations of
a complex system of the specific - human type.
These fields use consciousness as an approximation
to direct discription according to physical laws.
That is, instead of explaining how is it that I
require food and how the whole procedure goes on in
the body and the environment, the approximation just
notes - I want to eat. That is the basic info input
that we appear to have while physics is a reasoning
frame we apply to it and interpret it through.
The info itself has no characterization (except the
self-referential maybe) out of the context of our reasoning.
I think we're talking about consciousness in both now,Originally posted by Mentat
What has no satisfactory scientific explanation or definition? Consciousness or Causality? It's really hard to keep up with both of these threads at the same time, without "losing thread" of what you were arguing.
Yeah, I know. A paradox, remember ?Originally posted by Mentat
"Uncertainty" (with a capital "U", which is how Manuel and I agreed to refer to the uncertainty of all things) does not allow one to take anything for granted, correct? However, one must first take Uncertainty for granted, before deciding not to take anything for granted. This means that there is a paradox at the heart of Uncertainty (the paradox of taking for granted that one should take nothing for granted). With this paradox at it's heart, it become quite unusable, as one could not possibly give it a use (without running into it's paradoxicality (if that's actually a word).
What I said is not a scientific assumption,Originally posted by Mentat
Remember, to assume that you assume nothing is a paradox .
We ARE getting data. That is the only absolute weOriginally posted by Mentat
Oh yes? So we assume that we are "getting some data" (which is an assumption of an objective Universe), and we assume that we are capable of "dealing with it".
Of course not. Consistency is judged according toOriginally posted by Mentat
And whether or not it's showing consistency isn't left to assumption?
Science is NOT a branch of philosophy.Originally posted by Mentat
I'm not saying that Science is a belief, I'm saying it's based on a few of them (much like any other branch of Philosophy).
Your "reasoning" is self-referential and with noOriginally posted by Mentat
I wasn't defining, I was pointing out a bit of reasoning
that proves that you are conscious.
Any quotes of scientists on consciousness ?Originally posted by Mentat
I must point out that this is your assumption, and nothing more, as there are many reputable scientists who believe otherwise.
Originally posted by drag
Greetings Mentat !
I think we're talking about consciousness in both now,
aren't we ?
Yeah, I know. A paradox, remember ?
What I said is not a scientific assumption,
it's part of the philosophical background of science.
We ARE getting data. That is the only absolute we
have - existence, characterized by what we experience.
I did not say we were capable of dealing with it.
It is one of many possibilities that we just try.
If it gives us anything - alright, if not - then not.
Of course not. Consistency is judged according to
invented abstract reasoning systems that are by
themselves absolute and axiomatic (at least, all
our abstract reasoning systems so far used axioms).
Science is NOT a branch of philosophy.
Science deals with observation. Philosophy is the
background "below", "above" and to the "sides".
Your "reasoning" is self-referential and with no
additional to that content.
Any quotes of scientists on consciousness ?
Indeed.Originally posted by Mentat
Thus a dead-end in a rational line of reasoning, as
that's what a paradox really is.
Science deal with applying some reasoning toOriginally posted by Mentat
Are we going to discuss Science, or it's Philosophical background. The difference is important, as you are taking the stance of someone who believes in Science (thus, as is my nature, I must take the opposite stance, no matter how much I agree with you), and you cannot just leave it (for it's philosophical background) whenever you wish.
I think it does, these are seemingly all connected,Originally posted by Mentat
Existence may be the only absolute we have (Wuliheron had an excellent thread about this), but existence doesn't equal "getting data".
Well, we could also try to cook it for dinnerOriginally posted by Mentat
But you did say that we try. And if we always try to deal with the data that we get, isn't the logical conclusion that we believe (assume) it is right (and possible) to do so?
What ?!Originally posted by Mentat
How many things are you going to declare absolute,
before realizing that absolutes are all assumptions?
Science are likely perspectives upon contents of existence.Originally posted by Mentat
Philosophy is the love and pursuit of Wisdom/Knowledge/Understanding. Science is one of the ways to pursue Wisdom/Knowledge/Understanding. There was a whole thread dedicated to this point.
No, a scientific truth in modern times is defined asOriginally posted by Mentat
It doesn't matter that it's self-referential, as the clause against self-reference is only toward definitions and deductions. If I tell you that you are thinking about that which I have typed at this time, I am telling you the simple, demonstrable, scientific, truth.
I'm terribly sorry but I do not regard philosophersOriginally posted by Mentat
There is a book by the [great] Philosopher, Daniel Dennet, called "Consciousness Explained". In it (as well as in "The Mind's I") there are numerous insights - with regard to consciousness - that are based on the studies of neurologists and psychologists (both of which are branches of Science, obviously).
Not at all, I think the two of us could certainlyOriginally posted by sage
Mind if I join drag and mentat.
The use of other concepts to explain a specificOriginally posted by sage
I have a question. WHAT IS A DEFINITION?
Originally posted by drag
Science deal with applying some reasoning to
observation. Philsophy deals with applying (often
the same) type of reasoning to any abstract thought.
I do not "believe" in science, I "think" it's correct
BECAUSE it's probable.
I do not see why you should take any side but your own.
I think it does, these are seemingly all connected,
basic and self-referential concepts (in this context).
Well, we could also try to cook it for dinner
or simply ignore it, the possibilities are infinite
I think and some people try to pursue those that
appear usefull (while others don't... ).
What ?!
That's supposed to be my line for you.
(Is this delibarate or did you seriously fail to
understand me, or perhaps I failed to explain myself,
so badly ? )
Of course not. Consistency is judged according to
invented abstract reasoning systems that are by
themselves absolute and axiomatic (at least, all
our abstract reasoning systems so far used axioms).
Science are likely perspectives upon contents of existence.
Philosophy are all perspectives upon existence - everything.
I guess I should correct myself, you could say that
science is a sub-field of philosophy. It's just that
their roles in modern society slightly obscure this
in terms of semantics.
No, a scientific truth in modern times is defined as
a mathematical discription.
I'm terribly sorry but I do not regard philosophers
as scientists.
I believe
you are mistaken about this, but let's leave it at that.
(We could post a poll - "Consciousness - something
special according to modern science ?" )
Originally posted by sage
Mind if I join drag and mentat.
I have a question.
WHAT IS A DEFINITION?