Confused about transformers formula derivation

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on the derivation of the transformer equation Vp/Vs = Np/Ns, focusing on the relationship between primary and secondary voltages and induced electromotive forces (emfs). It clarifies that the primary voltage can be equated to the induced emf in the primary coils due to the change in magnetic flux, as described by Faraday's law. The magnetic flux is consistent across both coils, allowing for the derivation of the transformer law by equating the relations for both coils. The conversation concludes with a suggestion to reference additional resources for further understanding. Overall, the key concept is the connection between voltage, magnetic flux, and the number of turns in transformer coils.
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Hi,

I've been a bit confused with how the equation Vp/Vs = Np/Ns came about. From reading a physics textbook, I understand that the voltages came from the emfs ε (primary) and ε (secondary). The primary voltage through the primary coils causes a change in magnetic flux which induces an emf in the secondary coils. From this, I can see why ε (secondary) is equal to Vs, but what I don't understand is why the ε (primary) can be replaced with Vp when the formula for ε (primary) is equal to -N (primary) * delta (flux)/delta (time). I thought this equation is for the induced emf, not the applied voltage from the primary source. Or is the primary voltage equal to an induced emf in the primary coils from iron core ie. if a voltage is applied to a solenoid with N(primary) coils, then would there result in a delta (flux)/delta (time)?

If apply voltage to solenoid, then would applied V= N* (delta flux)/ (delta time)?
which would essentially be the same backwards : induced emf = N* (delta flux)/ (delta time)? Is this true or am I totally wrong?

(ideal wires assumed)

Thank you.
 
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It is just the Faraday law, which connects the magnetic flux, voltage and turns.
Magnetic flux rate is same for both coils.
 
Last edited:
Rajini said:
It is just the Faraday law, which connects the magnetic flux, voltage and turns.
Magnetic flux rate is same for both coils.
Hi Rajini, thanks for replying.

So I'm just wondering, does the change in magnetic flux through the primary coils cause an induced emf equal to the applied primary voltage through the primary coils themselves as well? Would that counteract the voltage from the primary source?
 
Actually when you apply a voltage to primary coil it induces a voltage in secondary according to faraday induction law. Now the magnetic flux is same for both coils..Keeping this in mind you can find the relation for secondary coil..The same applies to primary..equating both the relations you get the famous transformer law..
look into wiki
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Transformer
there you will find explanation with picture.
 
I think I understand now, thanks a lot!


Rajini said:
Actually when you apply a voltage to primary coil it induces a voltage in secondary according to faraday induction law. Now the magnetic flux is same for both coils..Keeping this in mind you can find the relation for secondary coil..The same applies to primary..equating both the relations you get the famous transformer law..
look into wiki
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Transformer
there you will find explanation with picture.
 
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