- #1
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- TL;DR Summary
- I'm stuck with a small detail in the proposition below. I assume the reader is familiar with the space ##BV##, the functions ##F:\mathbb R\to\mathbb C## of bounded variation. We also have ##NBV##, where ##N## stands for normalized; this is the space of ##BV## functions which are right continuous and ##F(-\infty)=0##.
Let ##m## be Lebesgue measure. It is another proposition that the functions ##NBV## are in one-to-one correspondence between complex Borel measures, e.g. ##F\in NBV## induces a complex measure ##\mu_F## such that ##F(x)=\mu_F((-\infty,x])##. Then in Folland's real analysis text,
I'll omit the ##\impliedby## direction. In the ##\implies## direction, we suppose that ##m(E)=0## for a Borel set ##E## and we want to show ##\mu_F(E)=0##. If ##\delta## and ##\epsilon## are as in the definition of absolute continuity of ##F## (see here), we can find open sets ##U_1\supset U_2\supset\cdots\supset E## such that ##m(U_1)<\delta##. This is possible by so-called regularity of ##m##. To be exact, we have ##m(E)=\inf\{m(U):U\supset E,U\text{ open}\}##, and then by definition of infimum we can find such a sequence. However, it is also claimed that ##\mu_F(U_j)\to \mu_F(E)##. Why is this true?
Some observations; ##\mu_F## is a complex measure which is regular. This means the positive measure ##|\mu_F|## is regular. So ##|\mu_F|(K_j)\to|\mu_F|(E)## for some sequence ##\{K_j\}## of open sets. But it is not clear to me that we can simply choose ##K_j=U_j## (and why we'd get convergence for ##\mu_F## rather than ##|\mu_F|##).
3.32 Proposition. If ##F\in NBV##, then ##F## is absolutely continuous iff ##\mu_F\ll m##.
I'll omit the ##\impliedby## direction. In the ##\implies## direction, we suppose that ##m(E)=0## for a Borel set ##E## and we want to show ##\mu_F(E)=0##. If ##\delta## and ##\epsilon## are as in the definition of absolute continuity of ##F## (see here), we can find open sets ##U_1\supset U_2\supset\cdots\supset E## such that ##m(U_1)<\delta##. This is possible by so-called regularity of ##m##. To be exact, we have ##m(E)=\inf\{m(U):U\supset E,U\text{ open}\}##, and then by definition of infimum we can find such a sequence. However, it is also claimed that ##\mu_F(U_j)\to \mu_F(E)##. Why is this true?
Some observations; ##\mu_F## is a complex measure which is regular. This means the positive measure ##|\mu_F|## is regular. So ##|\mu_F|(K_j)\to|\mu_F|(E)## for some sequence ##\{K_j\}## of open sets. But it is not clear to me that we can simply choose ##K_j=U_j## (and why we'd get convergence for ##\mu_F## rather than ##|\mu_F|##).