Difference between Coulomb's and E-static?

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In summary, the conversation discusses the use of Coulomb's Law and the equation for electrostatic potential energy in explaining chemical phenomena. It also delves into the mathematical reasoning behind the difference in the denominator and the appropriateness of using the terms interchangeably in teaching. Ultimately, it is concluded that the two concepts are equivalent and it may be more accurate to refer to Coulomb's Law when discussing the force of a static E-field and potential energy when referring to the equation for electrostatic potential energy.
  • #1
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Coming from a Chemistry background, we seem to flippantly explain away chemical phenomena using "Coulomb's Law" but are often specifically mentioning the equation for electrostatic potential energy due to their similarity. The explanatory power for us is about the same, but one is an inverse-square law and the other just proportional to 1/r. Why is this?

I recognize one is describing a force, and the other an energy, but I'm having difficulty finding any way to mathematically discover why there's the difference in denominator beyond just hand-waving or beyond stepping quite out of my knowledge set to derive it myself hah.

Also, is it appropriate for us as Chemistry instructors to use the terms interchangeably when explaining phenomena, or is this bad bad practice?

Thanks much!
 
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  • #2
Do you know how work done by a force is computed?
 
  • #3
Orodruin said:
Do you know how work done by a force is computed?

Well naievly I might say w=Fd then substitute that into internal energy assuming no term for heat, calling that something like the estatic potential and hoping the the d in work would cancel one of our d's in the inverse square... is that what youre getting at? I've thought of something like this but felt I was making too many assumptions.
 
  • #4
QuestionMarks said:
Well naievly I might say w=Fd then substitute that into internal energy assuming no term for heat, calling that something like the estatic potential and hoping the the d in work would cancel one of our d's in the inverse square... is that what youre getting at? I've thought of something like this but felt I was making too many assumptions.

It is something like that, but the first law of thermodynamics has nothing to do with this.

It is by definition that the potential energy at a point A in space, where there is electric field due to a source charge Q, is equal to the work done by the force of the electric field when we move a hypothetical charge q from point A to another fixed point of reference. The fixed point of reference sometimes is taken to be a point at infinite distance from the source Q, so that the electric field is zero there.

The work done is defined as the integral [itex]\int_{r_A}^{\infty}Fdr=\int_{r_A}^{\infty}K\frac{Qq}{r^2}dr[/itex]. If we do the math that integral equals [itex]K\frac{Qq}{r_A}[/itex], where [itex]r_A[/itex] is the distance of point A from the source Q.

We use integral in the formula for work because the force of the electric field varies inversely proportional to the square of the distance r from the source. The formula W=Fr is valid only if F is constant with respect to distance r.
 
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Let me just add that the relation between the force and the potential may also be written as
$$
{\bf F} = - \nabla V.
$$
Constrained to the radial direction, this would be
$$
F_r = - \frac{\partial V}{\partial r}.
$$
Now if ##V = K \frac{Qq}{r}## we would obtain
$$
F_r = -KQq \frac{d r^{-1}}{dr} = \frac{KQq }{r^2}.
$$
 
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  • #6
Alrighty, makes sense. Thanks you two!
 
  • #7
Wait one more question though:
Is it alright in say a high school classroom to justify the relevant phenomena to these equations by broadly talking about them as Coulomb's Law (I would guess historically one led to the other nigh simultaneously)? Subjective question perhaps but still interested in other thoughts.
 
  • #8
Well it is right because as you see from our posts we prove the equivalence
(Force obeys Coulomb's law)<=>(Potential energy follows inverse distance )i.e:

1)when we have an electric field force that obeys Coulombs Law (that is the force inversely proportional to the square of the distance), then the potential energy is inversely proportional to the distance,

and vice versa that is:

2) if the potential energy is inversely proportional to the distance then the force of field follows Coulomb's law.

But maybe it would be more accurate to avoid confusion to refer to Coulomb's Law when we talk about the forces of a static E-field, and when we talk about potential energy to refer to the potential energy proportional to 1/r as a consequence of a force that follows the Coulomb's Law.
 
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Related to Difference between Coulomb's and E-static?

1. What is the main difference between Coulomb's law and E-static?

Coulomb's law describes the relationship between electric charges and the force between them, while E-static refers to the state of an electrically charged object being at rest or in equilibrium.

2. How do Coulomb's law and E-static relate to each other?

Coulomb's law is one of the fundamental principles of E-static, as it helps to explain how electric charges interact with each other and how they can be at rest when in equilibrium.

3. Can Coulomb's law be applied to both positive and negative charges?

Yes, Coulomb's law applies to both positive and negative charges, as it takes into account the magnitude and direction of the charges when calculating the force between them.

4. Is E-static the same as electrostatics?

Yes, E-static and electrostatics refer to the same concept of electrically charged objects being at rest or in equilibrium.

5. Are there any real-life applications of Coulomb's law and E-static?

Yes, both Coulomb's law and E-static have numerous real-life applications, such as in the design of electronic circuits, the development of electrical insulation materials, and the study of atmospheric lightning.

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