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I am reading John M. Lee's book: Introduction to Smooth Manifolds ...
I am focused on Chapter 3: Tangent Vectors ...
I need some help in fully understanding Lee's definition and conversation on pushforwards of \(\displaystyle F\) at \(\displaystyle p\) ... ... (see Lee's conversation/discussion posted below ... ... )
Although the book is on differential topology, my question is essentially algebraic ...
Lee's definition and discussion of pushforwards of \(\displaystyle F \ : \ M \longrightarrow N \) is as follows (see page 66):View attachment 5327In the above discussion we read the following:
" ... ... \(\displaystyle (F_*X)(fg) = X((fg) \circ F)\)
= \(\displaystyle X((f \circ F) (g \circ F) ) \)
= ... ...
... ... "The above working by Lee implies that
\(\displaystyle (fg) \circ F = (f \circ F) (g \circ F)\)
but why is this true ... ?
Can someone help ...
Peter*** EDIT ***
Just thinking ... if R was an algebra of smooth functions with operations of addition and multiplication of functions and a 'multiplication' that was composition of functions ... then would multiplication of functions distribute over composition ... just a thought ... but I suspect a bit muddled ...
Maybe if one could justify that functions under product and composition of functions ... but you would have to assume the required distributivity anyway ...
Must be a more direct way ...
I am focused on Chapter 3: Tangent Vectors ...
I need some help in fully understanding Lee's definition and conversation on pushforwards of \(\displaystyle F\) at \(\displaystyle p\) ... ... (see Lee's conversation/discussion posted below ... ... )
Although the book is on differential topology, my question is essentially algebraic ...
Lee's definition and discussion of pushforwards of \(\displaystyle F \ : \ M \longrightarrow N \) is as follows (see page 66):View attachment 5327In the above discussion we read the following:
" ... ... \(\displaystyle (F_*X)(fg) = X((fg) \circ F)\)
= \(\displaystyle X((f \circ F) (g \circ F) ) \)
= ... ...
... ... "The above working by Lee implies that
\(\displaystyle (fg) \circ F = (f \circ F) (g \circ F)\)
but why is this true ... ?
Can someone help ...
Peter*** EDIT ***
Just thinking ... if R was an algebra of smooth functions with operations of addition and multiplication of functions and a 'multiplication' that was composition of functions ... then would multiplication of functions distribute over composition ... just a thought ... but I suspect a bit muddled ...
Maybe if one could justify that functions under product and composition of functions ... but you would have to assume the required distributivity anyway ...
Must be a more direct way ...
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