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ItsDaveDude
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From another thread this question came up:
What about tidal forces? Although they could be incredibly small (and I don't think anyone denies they exist) you could conceive of a test in a closed room that detects tidal forces (if it is gravity) and when it doesn't detect them it is uniform acceleration. Isn't this an effect that makes it misleading to say gravity and uniform acceleration are equivalent, because tidal forces are a detectable force that exist in one case (gravity) but not in the other (uniform acceleration), therefore making them not equivalent effects?
To me, this means uniform acceleration and gravity are not equivalent then, and the equivalence principle is just some happenstance of physics that happens to work if we don't look too closely, but in reality these are totally different physical laws/effects from different fundamental processes, and we shouldn't be going on about how they are they same effect or equivalent. Is this a fair statement? Is the equivalence principle just a convenience/artifice for thinking about physics but doesn't hold in reality if you want to think about physics fundamentally?
I am simply saying that there is no test you can do in a closed room that will distinguish between uniform acceleration and gravity. That is the very essence of EP.
What about tidal forces? Although they could be incredibly small (and I don't think anyone denies they exist) you could conceive of a test in a closed room that detects tidal forces (if it is gravity) and when it doesn't detect them it is uniform acceleration. Isn't this an effect that makes it misleading to say gravity and uniform acceleration are equivalent, because tidal forces are a detectable force that exist in one case (gravity) but not in the other (uniform acceleration), therefore making them not equivalent effects?
To me, this means uniform acceleration and gravity are not equivalent then, and the equivalence principle is just some happenstance of physics that happens to work if we don't look too closely, but in reality these are totally different physical laws/effects from different fundamental processes, and we shouldn't be going on about how they are they same effect or equivalent. Is this a fair statement? Is the equivalence principle just a convenience/artifice for thinking about physics but doesn't hold in reality if you want to think about physics fundamentally?
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