- #1
George Wu
- 6
- 3
- TL;DR Summary
- In Peskin's QFT textbook, according to the explanation below(4.22), the Time-ordered exponential is just a notation, however in the derivation of (4.31),the Time-ordered exponential seems more than just a notation.
In Peskin P85:
It says the Time-ordered exponential is just a notation,in my understanding, it means
$$\begin{aligned}
&T\left\{ \exp \left[ -i\int_{t_0}^t{d}t^{\prime}H_I\left( t^{\prime} \right) \right] \right\}\\
&\ne T\left\{ 1+(-i)\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1H_I\left( t_1 \right) +\frac{(-i)^2}{2!}\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1dt_2H_I\left( t_1 \right) H_I\left( t_2 \right) +\cdots \right\}\\
\end{aligned}$$
However in the derivation of (4.31):
A way to derivate this is: Jens Wagemaker (https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/103623/jens-wagemaker), Why can the time-ordered exponentials be brought to the right?, URL (version: 2023-05-06): https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/762829
Here is his way of derivation:
Note that the time ordering operator is like a sorting algorithm, hence it doesn't matter if we permute something before applying the time ordering operator. In particular we can perform some additional time-ordering by inserting an additional time-ordering operator:
$$\begin{aligned}
A&=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)\exp \left[ -i\int_{-T}^T{d}tH_I(t) \right] \right\}\\
&=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)T\left\{ \exp \left[ -i\int_{-T}^T{d}tH_I(t) \right] \right\} \right\}\\
&=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)U(T,-T) \right\}\\
\end{aligned}$$
We show the case ##x_0>y_0##. By 4.26 we get
$$U(T,-T)=U\left(T, x_0\right) U\left(x_0, y_0\right) U\left(y_0,-T\right)$$
which we substitute.
$$A=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)U\left( T,x_0 \right) U\left( x_0,y_0 \right) U\left( y_0,-T \right) \right\} $$
Now we want to apply the time ordering. For this we note that the ##U\left(T, x_0\right)## contains only operators with the with in the interval ##\left[T, x_0\right]##, and similar for the terms ##U\left(x_0, y_0\right)## and##U\left(y_0,-T\right)##. Hence, if we apply the time ordering we get.
##A=U\left(T, x_0\right) \phi_I(x) U\left(x_0, y_0\right) \phi_I(y) U\left(y_0,-T\right)##, which occurs in the numerator of your second expression.
This step seems straightforward:
$$\begin{aligned}
A&=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)\exp \left[ -i\int_{-T}^T{d}tH_I(t) \right] \right\}\\
&=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)T\left\{ \exp \left[ -i\int_{-T}^T{d}tH_I(t) \right] \right\} \right\}\\
\end{aligned}$$
However this means:
$$\begin{aligned}
A&=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)\exp \left[ -i\int_{-T}^T{d}tH_I(t) \right] \right\}\\
&=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)\left[ 1+(-i)\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1H_I\left( t_1 \right) +\frac{(-i)^2}{2!}\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1dt_2H_I\left( t_1 \right) H_I\left( t_2 \right) +\cdots \right] \right\}\\
&=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)T\left[ 1+(-i)\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1H_I\left( t_1 \right) +\frac{(-i)^2}{2!}\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1dt_2H_I\left( t_1 \right) H_I\left( t_2 \right) +\cdots \right] \right\}\\
&=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)\left[ 1+(-i)\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1H_I\left( t_1 \right) +\frac{(-i)^2}{2!}\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1dt_2T\left\{ H_I\left( t_1 \right) H_I\left( t_2 \right) \right\} +\cdots \right] \right\}\\
&=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)T\left\{ \exp \left[ -i\int_{-T}^T{d}tH_I(t) \right] \right\} \right\}\\
&=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)U(T,-T) \right\}\\
\end{aligned}$$
In this process we use:
$$\begin{aligned}
&T\left\{ 1+(-i)\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1H_I\left( t_1 \right) +\frac{(-i)^2}{2!}\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1dt_2H_I\left( t_1 \right) H_I\left( t_2 \right) +\cdots \right\}\\
&=1+(-i)\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1H_I\left( t_1 \right) +\frac{(-i)^2}{2!}\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1dt_2T\left\{ H_I\left( t_1 \right) H_I\left( t_2 \right) \right\} +\cdots\\
\end{aligned}$$
which means :
$$
T\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1\cdots dt_nH_I\left( t_1 \right) \cdots H_I\left( t_n \right) =\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1\cdots dt_nT\left\{ H_I\left( t_1 \right) \cdots H_I\left( t_n \right) \right\} $$
What's more, in the derivation of (4.44):
In order to apply wick's theorm, Time-ordering must go inside the integral.
So my question is:
Does Time-ordering and Time Integral commute?
Or in another word:
Can Time-ordering can go inside the integral?
It says the Time-ordered exponential is just a notation,in my understanding, it means
$$\begin{aligned}
&T\left\{ \exp \left[ -i\int_{t_0}^t{d}t^{\prime}H_I\left( t^{\prime} \right) \right] \right\}\\
&\ne T\left\{ 1+(-i)\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1H_I\left( t_1 \right) +\frac{(-i)^2}{2!}\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1dt_2H_I\left( t_1 \right) H_I\left( t_2 \right) +\cdots \right\}\\
\end{aligned}$$
However in the derivation of (4.31):
A way to derivate this is: Jens Wagemaker (https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/103623/jens-wagemaker), Why can the time-ordered exponentials be brought to the right?, URL (version: 2023-05-06): https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/762829
Here is his way of derivation:
Note that the time ordering operator is like a sorting algorithm, hence it doesn't matter if we permute something before applying the time ordering operator. In particular we can perform some additional time-ordering by inserting an additional time-ordering operator:
$$\begin{aligned}
A&=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)\exp \left[ -i\int_{-T}^T{d}tH_I(t) \right] \right\}\\
&=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)T\left\{ \exp \left[ -i\int_{-T}^T{d}tH_I(t) \right] \right\} \right\}\\
&=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)U(T,-T) \right\}\\
\end{aligned}$$
We show the case ##x_0>y_0##. By 4.26 we get
$$U(T,-T)=U\left(T, x_0\right) U\left(x_0, y_0\right) U\left(y_0,-T\right)$$
which we substitute.
$$A=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)U\left( T,x_0 \right) U\left( x_0,y_0 \right) U\left( y_0,-T \right) \right\} $$
Now we want to apply the time ordering. For this we note that the ##U\left(T, x_0\right)## contains only operators with the with in the interval ##\left[T, x_0\right]##, and similar for the terms ##U\left(x_0, y_0\right)## and##U\left(y_0,-T\right)##. Hence, if we apply the time ordering we get.
##A=U\left(T, x_0\right) \phi_I(x) U\left(x_0, y_0\right) \phi_I(y) U\left(y_0,-T\right)##, which occurs in the numerator of your second expression.
This step seems straightforward:
$$\begin{aligned}
A&=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)\exp \left[ -i\int_{-T}^T{d}tH_I(t) \right] \right\}\\
&=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)T\left\{ \exp \left[ -i\int_{-T}^T{d}tH_I(t) \right] \right\} \right\}\\
\end{aligned}$$
However this means:
$$\begin{aligned}
A&=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)\exp \left[ -i\int_{-T}^T{d}tH_I(t) \right] \right\}\\
&=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)\left[ 1+(-i)\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1H_I\left( t_1 \right) +\frac{(-i)^2}{2!}\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1dt_2H_I\left( t_1 \right) H_I\left( t_2 \right) +\cdots \right] \right\}\\
&=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)T\left[ 1+(-i)\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1H_I\left( t_1 \right) +\frac{(-i)^2}{2!}\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1dt_2H_I\left( t_1 \right) H_I\left( t_2 \right) +\cdots \right] \right\}\\
&=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)\left[ 1+(-i)\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1H_I\left( t_1 \right) +\frac{(-i)^2}{2!}\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1dt_2T\left\{ H_I\left( t_1 \right) H_I\left( t_2 \right) \right\} +\cdots \right] \right\}\\
&=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)T\left\{ \exp \left[ -i\int_{-T}^T{d}tH_I(t) \right] \right\} \right\}\\
&=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)U(T,-T) \right\}\\
\end{aligned}$$
In this process we use:
$$\begin{aligned}
&T\left\{ 1+(-i)\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1H_I\left( t_1 \right) +\frac{(-i)^2}{2!}\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1dt_2H_I\left( t_1 \right) H_I\left( t_2 \right) +\cdots \right\}\\
&=1+(-i)\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1H_I\left( t_1 \right) +\frac{(-i)^2}{2!}\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1dt_2T\left\{ H_I\left( t_1 \right) H_I\left( t_2 \right) \right\} +\cdots\\
\end{aligned}$$
which means :
$$
T\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1\cdots dt_nH_I\left( t_1 \right) \cdots H_I\left( t_n \right) =\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1\cdots dt_nT\left\{ H_I\left( t_1 \right) \cdots H_I\left( t_n \right) \right\} $$
What's more, in the derivation of (4.44):
In order to apply wick's theorm, Time-ordering must go inside the integral.
So my question is:
Does Time-ordering and Time Integral commute?
Or in another word:
Can Time-ordering can go inside the integral?
Last edited: