Elementary proof of generalized power mean inequality

In summary: In particular, M_0 is the geometric mean. In summary, this is problem 20b from chapter I 4.10 of Apostol's Calculus I. The geometric mean G of n positive real numbers x_1,\ldots, x_n is defined by the formula G=(x_1x_2\ldots x_n)^{1/n}. Let p and q be integers, q<0<p. From part (a) deduce that M_q<G<M_p when x_1,x_2,\ldots, x_n are not all equal. (Part (a) was to show that G\leq M_1 and that G=M_1 only when x_1=x
  • #1
Ragnarok7
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This is problem 20b from chapter I 4.10 of Apostol's Calculus I.

The geometric mean \(\displaystyle G\) of \(\displaystyle n\) positive real numbers \(\displaystyle x_1,\ldots, x_n\) is defined by the formula \(\displaystyle G=(x_1x_2\ldots x_n)^{1/n}\).

Let \(\displaystyle p\) and \(\displaystyle q\) be integers, \(\displaystyle q<0<p\). From part (a) deduce that \(\displaystyle M_q<G<M_p\) when \(\displaystyle x_1,x_2,\ldots, x_n\) are not all equal.


(Part (a) was to show that \(\displaystyle G\leq M_1\) and that \(\displaystyle G=M_1\) only when \(\displaystyle x_1=x_2=\ldots =x_n\). I.e., the AM-GM inequality.)

Generalized mean - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Wikipedia mentions it is proved using Jensen's inequality, and all the proofs I have found have used this. But since this comes from the opening of Apostol's book, where calculus has not been developed, I'm wondering if there is a non-calculus way of proving this. Does anyone have any ideas?
 
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  • #2
Ragnarok said:
This is problem 20b from chapter I 4.10 of Apostol's Calculus I.

The geometric mean \(\displaystyle G\) of \(\displaystyle n\) positive real numbers \(\displaystyle x_1,\ldots, x_n\) is defined by the formula \(\displaystyle G=(x_1x_2\ldots x_n)^{1/n}\).

Let \(\displaystyle p\) and \(\displaystyle q\) be integers, \(\displaystyle q<0<p\). From part (a) deduce that \(\displaystyle M_q<G<M_p\) when \(\displaystyle x_1,x_2,\ldots, x_n\) are not all equal.


(Part (a) was to show that \(\displaystyle G\leq M_1\) and that \(\displaystyle G=M_1\) only when \(\displaystyle x_1=x_2=\ldots =x_n\). I.e., the AM-GM inequality.)

Generalized mean - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Wikipedia mentions it is proved using Jensen's inequality, and all the proofs I have found have used this. But since this comes from the opening of Apostol's book, where calculus has not been developed, I'm wondering if there is a non-calculus way of proving this. Does anyone have any ideas?

Hi Ragnarok,

To prove the result, we must show that $G < M_p$ and $G > M_q$ when $x_1\ldots,x_n$ are not all equal. For definiteness, I'll let

\(\displaystyle G(a_1,...,a_n) := (a_1\cdots a_n)^{\frac{1}{n}}\) and \(\displaystyle M_r(a_1,...,a_n) := \left(\frac{a_1^r + \cdots + a_n^r}{n}\right)^{\frac{1}{r}},\)

for all n-tuples $(a_1,\ldots a_n)$ of positive real numbers. Then

\(\displaystyle [G(x_1,\ldots,x_n)]^p = G(x_1^p,\ldots, x_n^p) < M_1(x_1^p,\ldots,x_n^p) = [M_p(x_1,\ldots,x_n)]^p,\)

where the first inequality follows from part (a) and the fact that $x_1^p,\ldots,x_n^p$ are not all equal. Hence, taking $p^{th}$-roots,

\(\displaystyle G(x_1,\ldots,x_n) < M_p(x_1,\ldots,x_n),\)

or $G < M_p$. To prove $G > M_q$, we use a similar argument:

\(\displaystyle [G(x_1,\ldots,x_n)]^q = G(x_1^q,\ldots,x_n^q) < M_1(x_1^q,\ldots,x_n^q) = [M_q(x_1,...,x_n)]^q.\)

The strict inequality is due to part (a) and the fact that $x_1^q,\ldots, x_n^q$ are not all equal. Since $-q > 0$, we take $(-q)^{th}$ roots and then reciprocate to obtain

\(\displaystyle G(x_1,\ldots,x_n) > M_q(x_1,...,x_n),\)

i.e., $G > M_q$.
 
  • #3
Thank you so much Euge! That is a great proof and I didn't think it could be so simple!

I just realized that I forgot to define \(\displaystyle M_p\). I'll do it now just for completeness. If \(\displaystyle p\) is a nonzero integer, then the \(\displaystyle p\)th-power mean of \(\displaystyle n\) positive real numbers \(\displaystyle x_1,x_2,\ldots, x_n\) is \(\displaystyle M_p=\left(\frac{x_1^p\ldots +x_n^p}{n}\right)^{1/p}\).
 

FAQ: Elementary proof of generalized power mean inequality

What is the generalized power mean inequality?

The generalized power mean inequality is a mathematical inequality that relates the arithmetic mean, geometric mean, and harmonic mean of a set of numbers. It states that for any set of positive real numbers, the arithmetic mean is greater than or equal to the geometric mean, which is greater than or equal to the harmonic mean.

What is an elementary proof of the generalized power mean inequality?

An elementary proof is a proof that uses basic mathematical concepts and techniques, without relying on advanced or specialized knowledge. In the case of the generalized power mean inequality, an elementary proof can be done using only algebra and basic properties of these means.

Why is the generalized power mean inequality important?

The generalized power mean inequality is important because it has many applications in mathematics and other fields, such as physics, economics, and biology. It can also be used as a tool in solving more complex mathematical problems.

Is the generalized power mean inequality a strict inequality?

Yes, the generalized power mean inequality is a strict inequality, meaning that the inequality is always strict, with no equality case. This means that the arithmetic mean, geometric mean, and harmonic mean of a set of numbers can never be equal.

Can the generalized power mean inequality be extended to other means?

Yes, the generalized power mean inequality can be extended to other means, such as the q-mean, which is a generalization of the power mean. The q-mean inequality states that for any set of positive real numbers, the q-mean is greater than or equal to the harmonic mean, which is greater than or equal to the geometric mean, which is greater than or equal to the arithmetic mean. This inequality is a special case of the generalized power mean inequality when q=0.

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