- #1
R.G
- 4
- 0
Hi guys
something basic that I can't understand:
if I have a wind turbine , rotating due to some wind with no load , and no mechanical or drag losses in the blades or in the mechanics (no drag at all, I know its impposible ,but still) , the forces on the blades, create a Moment that accelarate the blades ( J*w_dot = M) , with no load or friction ,as I understand it the blades will accelarate to infinite angular velocity(as there is nothing stopping them) -STATEMENT 1
Here is my understanding problem , The rotor can take only P power from the wind , but P should be equall to w*M (angular velocity of the turbine multiplied by Moment) , but if the turbine have infinite w ,the Torque M=P/w should be very small, close to zero , so the wind turbine can't accelarate .but that is oppoitve from my first statement!
where I gone wrong?
something basic that I can't understand:
if I have a wind turbine , rotating due to some wind with no load , and no mechanical or drag losses in the blades or in the mechanics (no drag at all, I know its impposible ,but still) , the forces on the blades, create a Moment that accelarate the blades ( J*w_dot = M) , with no load or friction ,as I understand it the blades will accelarate to infinite angular velocity(as there is nothing stopping them) -STATEMENT 1
Here is my understanding problem , The rotor can take only P power from the wind , but P should be equall to w*M (angular velocity of the turbine multiplied by Moment) , but if the turbine have infinite w ,the Torque M=P/w should be very small, close to zero , so the wind turbine can't accelarate .but that is oppoitve from my first statement!
where I gone wrong?
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