Evaluate the Improper Integral (III)

In summary, the conversation is about evaluating the improper integral \int ^{\infty}_1 \frac{2x}{(x^2 + 1)^3} \, dx and determining its convergence. The conversation involves using substitution and comparing the integral to \int_{t>0}^\infty \frac{1}{x^a} dx to determine the value of a that makes the integral converge. Ultimately, the conclusion is that as long as the integral results in a finite number, it will converge, regardless of the value of the limit.
  • #1
shamieh
539
0
Need someone to check my work, as well as answer a few questions I'm confused about as well.

\(\displaystyle \int ^{\infty}_1 \frac{2x}{(x^2 + 1)^3} \, dx\)

so:

\(\displaystyle lim_{a\to\infty} \int^a_1 \frac{2x}{(x^2 + 1)^3} \, dx\)

Letting \(\displaystyle u = x^2 + 1\)
and \(\displaystyle du = 2x \, dx\)

after updating the limits

I come up with

\(\displaystyle \int ^{a^2 + 1}_2 u^{-3} \, du\)

I guess my question is: I know that the upper limit is really just infinity\(\displaystyle ^2\) + 1 right? So do I really need to worry about writing that substitution in the upper limit or can I just leave it as a

Also I know that \(\displaystyle \frac{number}{\infty} = 0\) but does \(\displaystyle \frac{\infty}{number} = \infty ?\) (Again, sorry if these sound like ignorant questions, I'm just a bit confused.)

I came up with: \(\displaystyle \frac{1}{-2u^2} |^a_2 = [0] + [\frac{1}{8}] \)

\(\displaystyle \therefore\) converges because \(\displaystyle \frac{1}{8} > 1\)
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #2
Re: Evaluate the Improper Integrl (III)

I would expect the integral to converges because the denominator goes faster than the numerator by huge amount. Natural we want to compare the integral to \(\displaystyle \int_{t>0}^\infty \frac{1}{x^a} dx\)

The integral converges if $a>1$.
 
  • #3
Re: Evaluate the Improper Integrl (III)

But in the first integral isn't it = 0 so it diverges because a < 1 ?

Therefore if one diverges don't they both?
 
  • #4
Re: Evaluate the Improper Integrl (III)

shamieh said:
\(\displaystyle \therefore\) converges because \(\displaystyle \frac{1}{8} > 1\)

We only need the final result to be finite for the integral to converge.
 
  • #5
Re: Evaluate the Improper Integrl (III)

Oh I see. I was analyzing it wrong. So it in fact does converge then.
 
  • #6
Re: Evaluate the Improper Integrl (III)

ZaidAlyafey said:
We only need the final result to be finite for the integral to converge.

So could I say that: \(\displaystyle \frac{1}{-2u^2} | ^{a^2 + 1}_2 = 0 + \frac{1}{8} \)

since a < 1 we know that it converges.

or

Since we have some finite limit that does exist, we can say that it definitely converges considering that 1/8 = .025 which is < 1

or

Do I not need to worry about the actual value that the limit is itself, \(\displaystyle \therefore\) if it exists we know that it converges?

Sorry, just trying to clarify
 
Last edited:
  • #7
Re: Evaluate the Improper Integrl (III)

shamieh said:
So could I say that: \(\displaystyle \frac{1}{-2u^2} | ^{a^2 + 1}_2 = 0 + \frac{1}{8} \)

since a < 1 we know that it converges.

or

Since we have some finite limit that does exist, we can say that it definitely converges considering that 1/8 = .025 which is < 1

or

Do I not need to worry about the actual value that the limit is itself, \(\displaystyle \therefore\) if it exists we know that it converges?

Sorry, just trying to clarify

If the integral is a finite number, as it is in this case, then the integral is convergent. The limit being less than 1 is irrelevant, in fact, the integral can equal ANY finite number (greater than 1 as well) and still converge.
 
  • #8
Re: Evaluate the Improper Integrl (III)

Prove It said:
If the integral is a finite number, as it is in this case, then the integral is convergent. The limit being less than 1 is irrelevant, in fact, the integral can equal ANY finite number (greater than 1 as well) and still converge.

Awesome, thanks so much! Was so confused on this. Now I get it!
 

FAQ: Evaluate the Improper Integral (III)

What is an improper integral?

An improper integral is an integral that does not have a finite value because one or both of its limits of integration are infinite or because the integrand has an infinite discontinuity in the interval of integration.

How do you evaluate an improper integral?

To evaluate an improper integral, you must first determine whether it is convergent or divergent. If it is convergent, you can use a variety of techniques such as integration by parts, substitution, or partial fractions to evaluate it. If it is divergent, you can use the limit comparison test, comparison test, or the integral test to determine its convergence or divergence.

What is the difference between a type I and type II improper integral?

Type I improper integrals have infinite limits of integration, while type II improper integrals have infinite discontinuities in the interval of integration. Type I improper integrals can be evaluated using the limit as the upper or lower limit approaches infinity, while type II improper integrals can be evaluated using the limit as a point of discontinuity approaches the endpoint of the interval.

Can improper integrals have both infinite limits and infinite discontinuities?

Yes, an improper integral can have both infinite limits and infinite discontinuities. In this case, you would need to evaluate each part separately and then add the two results together to get the final value of the integral.

Are there any special cases when evaluating improper integrals?

Yes, there are a few special cases when evaluating improper integrals. These include integrals with unbounded integrands, integrals with oscillating integrands, and integrals with infinite limits that approach each other. In these cases, special techniques such as the Cauchy principal value or the Dirichlet integral may be used to evaluate the integral.

Similar threads

Replies
6
Views
571
Replies
6
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
8
Views
601
Replies
1
Views
1K
Replies
6
Views
1K
Back
Top