- #211
Hurkyl
Staff Emeritus
Science Advisor
Gold Member
- 14,983
- 28
0 < (1/2 x 1/∞) < 1/∞
same problem. same limit. which is why i was using that as an example.
you guys use limits all the time yet you don't understand one when you see it?
BECAUSE infinity is your limit, you cannot get a number closer to 1 than .999~ but that does not mean they're equal because by imposing that limit you also cancel out the validity of using Achemedian Property to assert that equality. With NO limit on infinity it's very easy to see that Infinity+1 digits of 9 is closer to 1 and infinity+2 digits is even closer... ad infinitum 1 can never be reached and you can archemedes all you want...
How is it the same problem? I can identify some crucial differences that prevent the analogy from holding:
(a) In your toy example, the "limits" 500 and 1/500 are both part of the number system. ∞ and 1/∞, however, are not part of the real numbers.
(b) In your toy example, operations like + and * are not defined for every pair of numbers. However, + and * are defined for every pair of real numbers.
(c) In your toy example, the limit was "reachable"; e.g. you could do arithmetic that exceeds the limit (if it were allowed). No such problem exists in the real numbers. (This is merely a conceptual restatement of (b). )
Furthermore
(d) You are confusing the word "limit" (as in a limit is something that cannot be surpassed) with the word "limit" (as in a limit is something to which a sequence converges)
(e) Did you not notice that the proof I supplied does not use the Archmedian property? The proof works for all ordered fields, including those that are non-Archmedian.
(f) Things are only "easy to see" because:
(f1) You insist on treating "infinity" as if it behaves identically to finite things.
(f2) You haven't supplied a definition to which you intend to adhere, thus you aren't restricted by petty things like logical consistency.