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mtanti
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OK then what is math without physical meaning? Why would it exist if there was no link to real problems?
mtanti said:OK then what is math without physical meaning? Why would it exist if there was no link to real problems?
mtanti said:Wasn't there a time when integration was proved to be wrong because the theory and practice (hydrolics) did not match? And it was thus reexamined? What do you call that?
Not at all. The matematical discipline known as "hydrodynamics of the ideal fluid" gave results inconsistent with those fluid phenomena in which friction could not be neglected.mtanti said:Wasn't there a time when integration was proved to be wrong because the theory and practice (hydrolics) did not match? And it was thus reexamined? What do you call that?
This time, it seems that you have been told that Lebesgue integration "disproves" Riemann integration. It doesn't, and never will.mtanti said:It was told by my maths teacher. Appearantly the area under a curve was found by using the y-intercept. Anyway the story is not important. Aren't theory and practise mutual to each other? If one doesn't imply the other than at least one of them is considered wrong and restudied. Isn't that right?
mtanti said:OK then what is math without physical meaning? Why would it exist if there was no link to real problems?
arildno said:This time, it seems that you have been told that Lebesgue integration "disproves" Riemann integration. It doesn't, and never will.
This is the second most idiotic claim I've ever heard.
Data said:Mathematics is independent of reality. Sometimes we're lucky and we find that in some model and approximation, reality seems to obey the same axioms we're using to do some mathematics. Then we can approximate the real world using mathematics. There's no reason to believe we'll ever have a perfect description of reality in terms of mathematics, since we have no idea what the real axioms that things in the universe obey are (if they exist at all!).
So asking why half of half of an apple is a quarter of an apple is a philosophical question. We happen to have some nice axioms and definitions which let us have similar behaviour mathematically, so we can model things that way. Maybe sometime someone will cut an apple in half and they'll get two whole apples! There's nothing that says this is impossible; the universe can do as it likes.
See previous post.CRGreathouse said:What was the first?
mtanti said:Wasn't there a time when integration was proved to be wrong because the theory and practice (hydrolics) did not match? And it was thus reexamined? What do you call that?
HallsofIvy said:Not "gibberish", not "idiotic", but a confused reference to the relationship between Fourier series and Lebesque integration. It wasn't immediately connected with "hydraulics" but Anton Fourier was an engineer who developed a method for dealing with the heat equation- the Fourier series. He asserted two things: that given a periodic function one could write it as a sine and cosine series, giving formulas for the coefficients as an integral of the function, and the converse- that given such a series, it summed to an integrable function.
It turned out that the second claim is not true- it is easy to find Fourier series that give functions that are not Riemann integrable. It was the fact that Fourier series worked so nicely that led to the development of the Lebesque integral for which it is true!
Experiences from "practice" as you call it, may inspire someone to develop and enrich what you call "theory".mtanti said:Right, sorry for the confusion. Perhaps should have been more sure before saying it. However practise still had to do with the change in theory right?
mtanti said:Right, sorry for the confusion. Perhaps should have been more sure before saying it. However practise still had to do with the change in theory right?
So then what is gained by introducing i?arildno said:No, they would have said we can describe this with the aid of product functions of exponentials and trigonometric functions.
DaveC426913 said:So then what is gained by introducing i?
That is a deeply fascinating PHILOSOPHICAL question that no one has got a final answer for.mtanti said:So axioms are independant of practicle and physical events? How come mathematics is so compatible with the natural world then?
mtanti said:So axioms are independant of practicle and physical events? How come mathematics is so compatible with the natural world then?
mtanti said:Are there any axioms which are not compatible? In some unorthodox mathemetical theory? Can you make up some mathematical exioms and start a new form of mathematics?
mtanti said:Are there any axioms which are not compatible? In some unorthodox mathemetical theory? Can you make up some mathematical exioms and start a new form of mathematics?
Data said:Godel's famous incompleteness theorems say that every set of axioms is either inconsistent or incomplete - that is, either there are statements that, under those axioms, can be shown to be both true and false (inconsistency), or there are unprovable but true statements (incompleteness).
mtanti said:But the orthodox axioms we use are compatible with practicle situations right? Were they chosen to be so or were they just found inductively to be so?
mtanti said:So the more axioms you have, the more complete your mathemetics is?
You could say that.mtanti said:So this is what mathemetics is all about? Applying simple axioms to create complex theorems?
mtanti said:Also, my teacher once said that if an axiom was to be proved incompatible with reality, all practicle subjects using theorems which use the axiom will collapse (in practise almost all theorems use every axiom I guess). Could the axioms be modified and the orthodox mathematics be discarded in such a case?
What else are axioms than the basic strands of a pattern(or rather THE patterns themselves)?mtanti said:I used to think that mathematics is the application of patterns since all rules of algebra are following a pattern. Is that true?