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Sorcerer
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*This question is beyond my education, but if you need to post graduate level math, feel free to, and if it requires changing this to A level, be my guest*
So in SR, we assume that time dilation does not depend on acceleration, but only instantaneous speed. But in first learning about the general concepts of GR, we are all taught of the equivalence principle, where in small areas an accelerating frame is indistinguishable from a gravitational field. Yet there is time dilation due to gravity.
Does this mean the clock hypothesis doesn't apply in GR? If not, would someone be willing to flesh the explanation, or attempt to decipher and explain what I appear to be misunderstanding?
Thanks again as usual for all responses.
So in SR, we assume that time dilation does not depend on acceleration, but only instantaneous speed. But in first learning about the general concepts of GR, we are all taught of the equivalence principle, where in small areas an accelerating frame is indistinguishable from a gravitational field. Yet there is time dilation due to gravity.
Does this mean the clock hypothesis doesn't apply in GR? If not, would someone be willing to flesh the explanation, or attempt to decipher and explain what I appear to be misunderstanding?
Thanks again as usual for all responses.