ian2012
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A very basic question:
Why is the definition of gravitational potential energy, bringing an object from infinity (or any point of reference) to zero, the negative of the line integral of F.dr ? I am assuming since potential energy in an attractive field , which is defined to be negative, the integral was fixed to lead to this result... or is there a more mathematical reason?
Why is the definition of gravitational potential energy, bringing an object from infinity (or any point of reference) to zero, the negative of the line integral of F.dr ? I am assuming since potential energy in an attractive field , which is defined to be negative, the integral was fixed to lead to this result... or is there a more mathematical reason?