Help with Time-Independent Perturbation Theory "Good" States Proof

AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around a confusion regarding the proof in Griffiths' "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics," specifically about expressing a state Ψ_{γ}(0) as a linear combination of orthogonal states Ψ_{a}^{0} and Ψ_{b}^{0}. The user initially struggles with the apparent contradiction between orthogonality and the ability to form a linear combination. Clarification is provided that if γ equals μ, the inner product does not necessarily equal zero, allowing for the linear combination. The user concludes that Ψ_{γ}(0) can indeed be expressed as a combination of Ψ_{a}^{0} and Ψ_{b}^{0} due to their distinct eigenvalues, which confirms their linear independence and spanning of the space. The conversation emphasizes the importance of understanding linear independence in quantum mechanics.
AT_saavedra
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Homework Statement
Please refer to the attached file.
I am trying to make sense of the last part of the "good" states proof.
Relevant Equations
Please refer to the attached file.
(Disclaimer: this is not a HW question. I am self-studying, and this felt like the type of question I've seen in this forum. If there is somewhere better for me to share this doubt, please let me know and I'll transfer it right away.)
I am currently reviewing Chapter 7 of Introduction to QM by Griffiths. I have been stuck for an hour or so trying to understand the last paragraph of this proof (pls check the attached file). It claims that we can express Ψ_{γ}(0) as a linear combination of Ψ_{a}^{0} and Ψ_{b}^{0} but right before that the proof just showed that they are orthogonal states. Just from the very basics of linear algebra these two statements seem incompatible to me.

I know there must be some error in my interpretation since the contradiction is too clear not to have been caught by the third version of the book, but despite reviewing the chapter once again, as well as my linear algebra book, I am still completely stuck. If someone could help me get out of this hole I have made for myself, I would deeply appreciate it.
 

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If ##\gamma = \mu##, then you don’t necessarily have ##\langle \psi_a^0 , \psi_\gamma (0) \rangle = 0##.
 
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Thank you for your answer. I now see what I was misinterpreting. If I could ask a quick follow-up question, am I correct in assuming that ##\psi_\gamma(0)## is a linear combination of ##\psi_a^0## and ##\psi_b^0## because ##\psi_a^0## and ##\psi_b^0## are two distinct eigenvectors with distinct eigenvalues so they must span the space? (since the theorem is dealing with 2nd order degeneracy)
 
To show that ##\psi_a^0## and ##\psi_b^0## span the space, we must prove they are linearly independent. Suppose

\begin{align*}
\kappa \psi_a^0 + \zeta \psi_b^0 = 0.
\end{align*}

Applying ##A## gives

\begin{align*}
\kappa \mu \psi_a^0 + \zeta \nu \psi_b^0 = 0.
\end{align*}

Subtracting ##\mu (\kappa \psi_a^0 + \zeta \psi_b^0) = 0## from this yields

\begin{align*}
\zeta (\nu - \mu) \psi_b^0 = 0.
\end{align*}

Since ##\mu \ne \nu##, it follows that ##\zeta = 0##, and hence ##\kappa = 0##.
 
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julian said:
To show that ##\psi_a^0## and ##\psi_b^0## span the space, we must prove they are linearly independent. Suppose

\begin{align*}
\kappa \psi_a^0 + \zeta \psi_b^0 = 0.
\end{align*}

Applying ##A## gives

\begin{align*}
\kappa \mu \psi_a^0 + \zeta \nu \psi_b^0 = 0.
\end{align*}

Subtracting ##\mu (\kappa \psi_a^0 + \zeta \psi_b^0) = 0## from this yields

\begin{align*}
\zeta (\nu - \mu) \psi_b^0 = 0.
\end{align*}

Since ##\mu \ne \nu##, it follows that ##\zeta = 0##, and hence ##\kappa = 0##.
Thank you very much, your answer was very thorough
 
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Thread 'Help with Time-Independent Perturbation Theory "Good" States Proof'
(Disclaimer: this is not a HW question. I am self-studying, and this felt like the type of question I've seen in this forum. If there is somewhere better for me to share this doubt, please let me know and I'll transfer it right away.) I am currently reviewing Chapter 7 of Introduction to QM by Griffiths. I have been stuck for an hour or so trying to understand the last paragraph of this proof (pls check the attached file). It claims that we can express Ψ_{γ}(0) as a linear combination of...

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