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JoviG
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So faradays paradox is often depicted as a circular copper disk on a shaft with a donut or toroidal magnet on one or either side of the disk. Spin the disk and magnets together voltage is produced. Since the magnets are rotating along their poles the orientation of the magnetic field compared the disk never changes.
From what I gather, the theory is the magnetic field doesn’t actually rotate with the magnets, the field is stationary in space because the orientation of the poles is stationary compared to the axis of rotation. Alright… seems to make sense, rotating conductor, “stationary” magnetic field, voltage is produced. Now here’s where I get confused. Take a copper disk on a shaft and on one side of disk place 4 bar magnets, 90° apart, 2 of them will have their N poles towards the shaft, the other 2 will have their south poles facing the shaft. Like this, but their could be numerous configurations:
Rotate the shaft, still makes voltage. Now there’s no way you can say the magnetic field isn’t rotating with the magnets… The magnetic field is absolutely rotating. How do you have voltage when you have no relative motion?
The only way that makes sense to me is if the magnetic field produced by a magnet is really a field induced in the space around the magnet because if it’s atomic alignment and not an intrinsic force produced by the magnet itself. And furthermore that magnetic field induced in the space around the magnet does not instantaneously align itself to a rotating magnet, but i imagine it’s pretty quick.
I guess i kinda think of it like water, when the magnet is moved through space it produces a magnetic wake in its path. If you think about like this, the relative motion is the copper disk rotating thru the magnets “wake”. Doesn’t matter that the magnets are rotating with the disk because the magnetic “wake” is separate entity.
If that’s true and I’m not saying it is, if you took a homopolar generator that isn’t rotating on an airplane would it make voltage? You still have a conductor passing through the “wake” of a magnetic field, just in a linear fashion.
From what I gather, the theory is the magnetic field doesn’t actually rotate with the magnets, the field is stationary in space because the orientation of the poles is stationary compared to the axis of rotation. Alright… seems to make sense, rotating conductor, “stationary” magnetic field, voltage is produced. Now here’s where I get confused. Take a copper disk on a shaft and on one side of disk place 4 bar magnets, 90° apart, 2 of them will have their N poles towards the shaft, the other 2 will have their south poles facing the shaft. Like this, but their could be numerous configurations:
Rotate the shaft, still makes voltage. Now there’s no way you can say the magnetic field isn’t rotating with the magnets… The magnetic field is absolutely rotating. How do you have voltage when you have no relative motion?
The only way that makes sense to me is if the magnetic field produced by a magnet is really a field induced in the space around the magnet because if it’s atomic alignment and not an intrinsic force produced by the magnet itself. And furthermore that magnetic field induced in the space around the magnet does not instantaneously align itself to a rotating magnet, but i imagine it’s pretty quick.
I guess i kinda think of it like water, when the magnet is moved through space it produces a magnetic wake in its path. If you think about like this, the relative motion is the copper disk rotating thru the magnets “wake”. Doesn’t matter that the magnets are rotating with the disk because the magnetic “wake” is separate entity.
If that’s true and I’m not saying it is, if you took a homopolar generator that isn’t rotating on an airplane would it make voltage? You still have a conductor passing through the “wake” of a magnetic field, just in a linear fashion.
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