How Can You Linearize the Equation v=vw + (v0 - vw)e^-kt for Graphical Analysis?

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To linearize the equation v = vw + (v0 - vw)e^-kt for graphical analysis, it can be rearranged to v - vw = (v0 - vw)e^-kt. By taking the natural logarithm, the equation becomes ln(v - vw) = ln(v0 - vw) - kt, allowing for a linear plot with ln(v - vw) as the ordinate and time (t) as the abscissa. The y-intercept (b) is ln(v0 - vw) and the slope (m) is -k. A semi-log plot can simplify the process, as it eliminates the need to calculate ln(v - vw) directly.
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Hi everyone!

I have an issue with my physical chemistry lab. They ask us to rearrange the fallowing equation

v=vw + (v0 - vw)e^-kt
where v is velocity and t is time, vw is a constant

They also ask which quantity would be plotted as ordinate and as absissa. We have to indicated the parameter of the slope and the intercept. Now once I have a equation I'll be able to find all those things but I can't seem to get to that equation.

I was thinking of plotting it for velocity and time. We also need to be able to figure out k from the graph

I tried for a while using the natural log of the function to lower the exponent and remove the e but I still can't seem to get a linear equation in which I'll be able to extract m and b.

As you can see I'm a chemistry student, not very good with anything physics related, and sorry for the broken English, it's my second language :)

Also sorry if this is in the wrong section, I'm new to this
 
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Welcome to PF!

Hi AlexLM! Welcome to PF! :smile:

Try writing it as v - vw = (v0 - vw)e-kt :wink:

(and btw, your English is fine :smile:)
 
Hi tiny-tim! Thanks a lot for the answer!

So basically if I graph for ln(v-vw)=ln(v0-vw) -kt I could use ln(v-vw) as my ordinate and t as my absissa. Then b would be ln(v0-vw) and the slope would be -k?

Does that make sense?
 
yup! :smile:

(oh, and it's "abscissa", from the Latin "abscindere" :wink:)
 
AlexLM said:
Hi tiny-tim! Thanks a lot for the answer!

So basically if I graph for ln(v-vw)=ln(v0-vw) -kt I could use ln(v-vw) as my ordinate and t as my absissa. Then b would be ln(v0-vw) and the slope would be -k?

Does that make sense?

If you do it on a semi-log plot, you don't actually have to calculate ln (v - v0). Your graphics package should have semi-log plot capabilities.
 
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