How do we calculate spin functions and determine singlet and triplet states?

  • Thread starter Thread starter lemma
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Singlet States
AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on calculating spin functions for two spin-1/2 particles, specifically the symmetric and antisymmetric combinations. The symmetric state is represented as |1,0⟩ = (|↑↓⟩ + |↓↑⟩)/√2, while the antisymmetric state is |0,0⟩ = (|↑↓⟩ - |↓↑⟩)/√2. The allowed total spin values (S) for two spin-1/2 particles are 0 (singlet state) and 1 (triplet state), with corresponding z-components (Sz) of 0 for the singlet and -1, 0, +1 for the triplet. The physical meaning of Sz values indicates the degeneracy of energy levels in the triplet state, while the singlet state has a unique energy level. Understanding these states is crucial for quantum mechanics and particle interactions.
lemma
Messages
3
Reaction score
0
Hi there,


I would be most grateful if someone would explain how do we calculate the spin function
χ(s_1,s_2 )=1/√2 [α(s_1 )β(s_2 )±α(s_2 )β(s_1 )]

both the symmetric and antisymmetric
α(s_1 )β(s_2 )+α(s_2 )β(s_1 ) = ?
α(s_1 )β(s_2 )-α(s_2 )β(s_1 ) = ?

knowing that α( + 1 / 2) = β( − 1 / 2) = 1 and α( − 1 / 2) = β( + 1 / 2) = 0.



And how do we get singlet (S=0, S_z=0) and triplet (S=1, S_z=+1,0,-1) states from this?

I have not found this explained explicitly anywhere, everybody seems to take it for granted, and it is really bothering me.

Thank you very much for possible clarification!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
The rules for the addition of angular momenta tell you the allowed values for S. Since you have two spin-1/2 particles, the allowed values for S are 0 and 1. When S=0, Sz must be 0. When S=1, you can have Sz=-1, 0, or 1.

To see how the |s_1,m_1; s_2,m_2\rangle states, which I'll label using arrows below, combine to form the |S,S_z\rangle states, what you do is start with the |1,1\rangle state. For the z-component to be conserved, both particles must be spin-up.

|1,1\rangle = |\uparrow\,\uparrow\,\rangle

Now to find |1,0\rangle, you apply the lowering operator to get

|1,0\rangle = (|\uparrow\,\downarrow\,\rangle + |\downarrow\,\uparrow\,\rangle)/\sqrt{2}

and if you apply the lowering operator again, you get

|1,-1\rangle = |\downarrow\,\downarrow\,\rangle

The remaining state |0,0\rangle= (|\uparrow\,\downarrow\,\rangle - |\downarrow\,\uparrow\,\rangle)/\sqrt{2} is determined by requiring it to be orthogonal to the other three.

P.S. I don't know if applying the lowering operator actually results in the correct normalization, but if it doesn't, just assume I normalized the result after lowering the state.
 
Last edited:
Hi,

I'm getting myself confused about the physical meaning of Sz = -1, 0, 1

Does this mean that the triplet state can have three degenerate ms energy levels, with spin quantum number = -1 (i.e. two "spin down" electrons), 1 (two "spin up electrons") or 0 (spin up/spin down on the HOMO and spin down/spin up on the LUMO)?

And the singlet state can have only one energy level where the spin quantum number = 0 (i.e. two electrons with opposite spin)?
 
If you're asking if the quantum number Sz is another way to write ms, the answer is yes. Whether the states are degenerate depends on the Hamiltonian.
 
Thread 'Help with Time-Independent Perturbation Theory "Good" States Proof'
(Disclaimer: this is not a HW question. I am self-studying, and this felt like the type of question I've seen in this forum. If there is somewhere better for me to share this doubt, please let me know and I'll transfer it right away.) I am currently reviewing Chapter 7 of Introduction to QM by Griffiths. I have been stuck for an hour or so trying to understand the last paragraph of this proof (pls check the attached file). It claims that we can express Ψ_{γ}(0) as a linear combination of...
Back
Top