- #1
nacho-man
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It has been eons since I've done any trigonometry, but I just can't prove how this following relationship holds for $n = 4, 8, 16, 32, \dots$
The relation is:
$$
2 \biggl( \! \frac{A_{2n}}{n} \! \biggr)^2 = \, 1 - \Biggl( \sqrt{1 - \frac{2A_n^{\phantom{X}}}{n}} \, \Biggr)^{\!2}
$$
I've subbed in points, and it definitely holds.
Using this image as reference, a polygon with $n$ edges and $A_n$ the entire area, we can estimate (albeit very slowly) a unit circle's area.View attachment 4126Any help would be appreciated.
The relation is:
$$
2 \biggl( \! \frac{A_{2n}}{n} \! \biggr)^2 = \, 1 - \Biggl( \sqrt{1 - \frac{2A_n^{\phantom{X}}}{n}} \, \Biggr)^{\!2}
$$
I've subbed in points, and it definitely holds.
Using this image as reference, a polygon with $n$ edges and $A_n$ the entire area, we can estimate (albeit very slowly) a unit circle's area.View attachment 4126Any help would be appreciated.