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TJULICHEN
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- TL;DR Summary
- In Fourier optics analysis, is it reasonable to multiply the wavefront function by the screen function of the diffraction screen to obtain the wavefront distribution behind the screen? This approach seems to yield results that differ from those obtained using the Kirchhoff diffraction integral formula, which includes a tilt factor and the coefficient term -i/λ. However, in Fourier optics, it seems that such terms are not introduced. I am quite confused about this and it makes me feel that the tw
In Fourier optics analysis, is it reasonable to multiply the wavefront function by the screen function of the diffraction screen to obtain the wavefront distribution behind the screen? This approach seems to yield results that differ from those obtained using the Kirchhoff diffraction integral formula, which includes a tilt factor and the coefficient term -i/λ. However, in Fourier optics, it seems that such terms are not introduced. I am quite confused about this and it makes me feel that the two theories are not consistent. I would appreciate any expert guidance on this.