If f(a)=g(a) and f(b)-g(b), prove they will have parallel tan lines

In summary, the conversation is about proving that at some point in the interval [a,b], two differentiable functions have parallel tangent lines if they have the same values at the endpoints. It is also discussed that this result still holds if the assumptions are relaxed to requiring the difference between the function values at the endpoints to be equal. The MVT and Rolle's Theorem are used to solve this problem.
  • #1
NWeid1
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1. Homework Statement
(a) If f and g are differentiable functions on the interval [a,b] with f(a)=g(a) and f(b)=g(b), prove that at some point in the interval [a,b], f and g have parallel tangent lines.

(b) Prove that the result of part a holds if the assumptions f(a)=g(a) and f(b)=g(b) are relaxed to requiring f(b)-f(a)=g(b)-g(a).


2. Homework Equations



3. The Attempt at a Solution
I know to use the MVT, but besides that I'm lost.
 
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  • #2
NWeid1 said:
1. Homework Statement
(a) If f and g are differentiable functions on the interval [a,b] with f(a)=g(a) and f(b)=g(b), prove that at some point in the interval [a,b], f and g have parallel tangent lines.

(b) Prove that the result of part a holds if the assumptions f(a)=g(a) and f(b)=g(b) are relaxed to requiring f(b)-f(a)=g(b)-g(a).


2. Homework Equations



3. The Attempt at a Solution
I know to use the MVT, but besides that I'm lost.

Let h(x) = f(x) - g(x).
From the assumptions in part a, h(a) = h(b) = 0. Now you can use Rolle's Theorem, a special case of the MVT.
 
  • #3
I already got it, but thanks, though.
 

FAQ: If f(a)=g(a) and f(b)-g(b), prove they will have parallel tan lines

What does it mean for two functions to have parallel tangent lines?

When two functions have parallel tangent lines, it means that at any given point, the slopes of their tangent lines are equal. This indicates that the two functions are changing at the same rate at that specific point.

How can we prove that two functions will have parallel tangent lines?

In order to prove that two functions will have parallel tangent lines, we need to show that their slopes at a specific point are equal. This can be done by using the derivative of the functions and setting them equal to each other at that point.

What is the significance of f(a)=g(a) and f(b)=g(b) in proving parallel tangent lines?

The equation f(a)=g(a) and f(b)=g(b) means that the two functions have the same value at two specific points, a and b. This is important because it allows us to use these points to compare the slopes of the tangent lines at those points and show that they are equal.

Can two functions have parallel tangent lines at every point?

Yes, it is possible for two functions to have parallel tangent lines at every point. This would mean that the two functions have the same slope at every point, indicating that they are changing at the same rate throughout their entire domain.

Are parallel tangent lines unique to only certain types of functions?

No, parallel tangent lines can occur for any type of function. As long as two functions have the same slope at a specific point, their tangent lines will be parallel at that point. This can happen for polynomial, exponential, trigonometric, or any other type of function.

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