- #1
phantomvommand
- 272
- 39
- Homework Statement
- See picture below
- Relevant Equations
- Faraday's Law, Lenz's Law
I am asking about (c) (i). To me, there should be 0 current induced because the change in flux is 0. Specifically, there is 0 (net) flux initially and 0 (net) flux as the magnet is pulled to the right.
The correct answer, however, is current into page for both wires. I am not sure how this is obtained. Interestingly, it seems to agree with my view that there is 0 current, since having current flowing into page for both wires (which the question states forms a closed circuit) is equivalent to having 0 net current, although I am not sure if this might be a coincidence.
Can anyone explain why current would flow into page for both wires? And why is my argument for 0 induced current incorrect?
Many thanks.