- #1
EvLer
- 458
- 0
So, there is this "inference rule" in my textbook:
from P v Q, we can assume P
but does this hold for P v Q', i.e. given this, can I say we have P?
My intuition says "no", but I'd rather have a reasoned answer...
Thanks in advance.
from P v Q, we can assume P
but does this hold for P v Q', i.e. given this, can I say we have P?
My intuition says "no", but I'd rather have a reasoned answer...
Thanks in advance.