In summary, Physicsforums.com has introduced the addition of LaTeX mathematical typesetting to their forum software. This professional-grade typesetting system allows for pleasing mathematical presentation and can be included in any post on the forum. Users can include LaTeX graphics by using the [ tex ]...[ /tex ] or [ itex ]...[ /itex ] tags, with the latter being used for inline graphics. The forum provides a pdf file and symbol reference for the most useful LaTeX commands, symbols, and constructs. The amsmath package is also available for more information. Examples of various techniques are provided, including subscripts, superscripts, and equations. Users can also use the [ tex usepackage= ] tag to include additional packages.
If the functions [tex] f(x,t)[/tex] and
[tex]\frac{\partial}{\partial t}f(x,t)[/tex] are continuous in
[tex] [a,b] \times [c,d] [/tex], then [tex] \frac{d}{dt}\int_a^{b}f(x,t)dx = \int_a^{b}\frac{\partial}{\partial t}f(x,t)dx.[/tex]
The post suggested using simple_wick.tex, saying it worked very well.
I agree that it works... but I can't figure out how to use it. That is, the example works well, and I can toy around and get random results, but I can't figure out what the logical rules are to use this script. Any ideas?
Flip
#532
Neohaven
37
0
As x tends to infinity, the limit of 1/x is such that
Works kinda well, doesn't it? Too bad it doesn't work on my computer...
#533
tomfitzyuk
15
0
[tex]
T = \frac{1}{f} = 2 \pi \sqrt \frac{l}{g}
[/tex]
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#534
calculus1967
27
0
Let the function [itex]f[/itex] be continuos on the closed interval [itex][a, b][/itex], and assume that [itex]f(x) \geq 0[/itex] for all [itex]x[/itex] in [itex][a, b][/itex]. If [itex]S[/itex] is the solid of revolution obtained by revolving about the [itex]x[/itex] axis the region bounded by the curve [itex]y = f(x)[/itex], the [itex]x[/itex] axis, and the lines [itex]x = a[/itex] and [itex]x = b[/itex], and if [itex]V[/itex] is the number of cubic units in the volume of [itex]S[/itex], then
[tex]V = \pi \int^b_{a}[f(x)]^2 dx[/tex]
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#535
blimkie
111
0
[ tex ] a^x_n [ /tex ]
#536
Jeff Ford
155
2
Just a test
[tex] a^_x [/tex]
#537
bomba923
763
0
I think we all know Taylor expansion:
[tex] \boxed{f\left( x \right) = \sum\limits_{n = 0}^\infty {\frac{{f^{\left( n \right)} \left( a \right)}}{{n!}}\left( {x - a} \right)^n } ,\left| {x - a} \right| < R} [/tex]
#538
wr1015
53
0
[tex]F_{1}+F{2}[/tex]
just testing
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#539
ktoz
171
12
level: 1
[tex]
\sum_{j=0}^m a + cj = \frac{(m + 1)(2a + cm)}{2}
[/tex]
2. The complex eigenvalues both yield the same solution! That is, the solution from (1+3i) is the same solution as that from (1-3i). Go figure. I did. So that's the reason we only need calculate the Real and Complex contribution from ONE member of each complex pair. And also, it's VERY convenient to write the eigenvectors as:
First, let's clean up the functional: Really, if we want to minimize that integral, we can just move U across the integral sign right, and let's put the exponential in the numerator:
So, once we obtain the partials, then we substitute them into the Euler equation and equate the expression to zero. Now, can you please substitute these expressions into:
Also, with regards to h=1: I just worked the problem with that value and obtained the results you indicated. Perhaps it works for any value of h. Not sure.
[tex]
\int_{0}^{1} x dx = \left[ \frac{1}{2}x^2 \right]_{0}^{1} = \frac{1}{2}
[/tex]
Let [tex]\theta[/tex] be a (p+1)-form defined on the ranges of all the cubes of a p-chain, where p>0. Then [tex]\int_{C} d \theta = \int_{\partial C} \theta[/tex]
[tex]
Let\; \theta\; be\; a (p+1)-form\; defined\; on\; the\; ranges\; of\; all\; the\; cubes\; of\; a\; p-chain,\; where\; p>0.\; Then \int_{C} d \theta = \int_{\partial C} \theta.
[/tex]
[tex]\nabla \cross E=0 [/tex]
[tex]\nabla \cdot E =\frac {\rho}{\epsilon_0}[/tex]
abc
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#559
lawtonfogle
160
0
Taken [tex]\sum F = m_1 \cdot a [/tex]
We have [tex] \sum F_x = m_1 \cdot a_x [/tex] and [tex] \sum F_y = m_1 \cdot a_y [/tex]
With [tex] a_y = 0 [/tex]
We We have [tex] \sum F_x = m_1 \cdot a_x [/tex] and [tex] \sum F_y = 0 [/tex]
So [tex] T = m_1 \cdot a_x [/tex]
Taken [tex]\sum F = m_2 \cdot a [/tex]
We have [tex]\sum F_y = m_2 \cdot a_y [/tex]
Which is [tex]m_2 \cdot g - T = m_2 \cdot a [/tex]
Inserting [tex] T = m_1 \cdot a_x [/tex] into [tex]m_2 \cdot g - T = m_2 \cdot a [/tex] and solving for [tex]a[/tex],
We get [tex] a = \frac {m_2 \cdot g} {m_1 + m_2}[/tex]
Inserting this into [tex] T = m_1 \cdot a[/tex],
we get [tex] T = \frac {m_1 \cdot m_2 \cdot g} {m_1 = m_2} [/tex]Now, taken [tex] v^2 = v_0^2 + 2a\deltax [/tex]
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#560
lawtonfogle
160
0
Taken [tex]\sum F = m_1 \cdot a [/tex]
We have [tex] \sum F_x = m_1 \cdot a_x [/tex] and [tex] \sum F_y = m_1 \cdot a_y [/tex]
With [tex] a_y = 0 [/tex]
We We have [tex] \sum F_x = m_1 \cdot a_x [/tex] and [tex] \sum F_y = 0 [/tex]
So [tex] T = m_1 \cdot a_x [/tex]
Taken [tex]\sum F = m_2 \cdot a [/tex]
We have [tex]\sum F_y = m_2 \cdot a_y [/tex]
Which is [tex]m_2 \cdot g - T = m_2 \cdot a [/tex]
Inserting [tex] T = m_1 \cdot a_x [/tex] into [tex]m_2 \cdot g - T = m_2 \cdot a [/tex] and solving for [tex]a[/tex],
We get [tex] a = \frac {m_2 \cdot g} {m_1 + m_2}[/tex]
Inserting this into [tex] T = m_1 \cdot a[/tex],
we get [tex] T = \frac {m_1 \cdot m_2 \cdot g} {m_1 = m_2} [/tex]