Invariance of Schrödinger's equation

tommy01
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I thought i had a basic to intermediate understanding of quantum physics and group theory, but when reading hamermesh's "group theory and it's application to physical problems" there's something in the introduction i don't understand.

first of all, i know the parity (or space inversion) operator and it's eigenfunctions. so from this point of view the example in the introduction is quit easy but i don't get hamermesh's argumentation.

he start's with the Schrödinger equation in one dimension:
"u''+[\lambda - V(x)]u = 0
where \lambda is the eigenvalue of u.
one dimension => necessarily not degenerate." why?

"We assume that the potential is an even function of x. (V(x)=V(-x))"

"replacing x by -x, we see, that if u(x) is a solution, so is u(-x)."
why?

what does he mean? is this a variable substitution x \rightarrow -x
u''(-x)+[\lambda - V(-x)]u(-x) = 0 = u''(-x)+[\lambda - V(x)]u(-x) ?
is such a substitution allowed?

sorry if the answer to my question is obvious but i don't get it at the moment.

thanks and greetings.
 
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Greetings tommy01! :smile:

(have a lambda: λ :wink:)

Don't use x -> -x, it's too confusing.

Use x -> y, where y = -x.

Then d2u/dx2 = d2u/dy2,

so d2u/dx2 + (λ - V(x))u

= d2u/dy2 + (λ - V(-y))u :wink:
 
For understanding why the states ara not degenerate I suggest Volume III of L.D. Landau and Lifgarbagez chapter III search for "general properties of motion in one dimmension"
 
hi all.

thanks for your quick answer.
i'm going to consult landau and lifgarbagez.
 
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